KCSE best revision exams with answers

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JOINT KCSE PREDICTION S1 (3).pdf

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NAME :……………………………………………………ADM NO……………….

CANDIDATE’S SIGNATURE………………………….DATE:………………….

 

BIOLOGY

FORM II

TIME: 2 HOURS

 

JOINT EVALUATION EXAMINATION

TERM 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

• Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
• Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
• All working must be clearly shown where necessary
• Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing

 

 

This paper consists of9 printed pages:

NB: Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all the printed pages are printed as indicated and no question is missing.

 

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS	MAXIMUM SCORE	CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1-19	80

 

 

 

 

 

1. State the use of each of the following. (3mks)
2. Ribosomes ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Mitochondria ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Lysosome …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. A ‘dolf’ is an offspring between a wolf and a dog. This animal is infertile. Give a reason for this.                                                 (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. a) What is a hypotonic solution?             (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

1. b) Explain the changes that will be observed if a drop of human blood is added to this solution. (3mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

1. c) State four importance of osmosis to plants.             (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

4. Give two main branches of Biology.             (2mks)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

5. A certain animal has no incisors and no canine but has six premolars and 6 molars in the upper jaw. In the lower jaw there are 6 incisors, 2 canines, 6 premolars and 6 molars.
6. What is the dental formula of the animal?       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Calculate the total number of teeth.       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Giving reasons, state the mode of feeding.       (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State and explain three environmental factors that affect transpiration. (6mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

 

 

7. A man is of group A+.
8. What type of antigen does his blood have?       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. What types of antibodies are present in his blood?       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Which blood groups can he receive blood from?       (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. (a) How is the mitochondrion adapted to its function?             (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) In which part of the mitochondrion does aerobic respiration take place?                      (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. State four structural differences between arteries and veins.                         (4mks)

Arteries	Veins

 

 

 

 

 

10. State three characteristics of a respiratory surface.             (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

11. The diagram below illustrates the structure of a gill from a bonny fish.
12. Name the structures labelled A, B and C and give their functions.       (6mks)

A……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

B……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

C……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. How is structure labeled C adapted to its function?       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

 

12. State the functions of the following parts of a microscope. (3mks)
13. Diaphragm ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
14. Condenser ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
15. Fine adjustment knob

………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

13. The diagram below represents a transverse section of a part of a young plant and seen under light microscope.

 

1. From which part of the plant was the specimen obtained?       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Name the parts labelled J,P and M.       (3mks)

J……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

P…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

M……………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

1. Name the functions of the part labelled M.       (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

 

14. State three factors that determine the amount of energy a human requires in a day. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State two defects of circulatory system.             (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. b) State three adaptations of erythrocytes to their functions. (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. A jet aeroplane is able to move and oxidise fuel to carbon (IV) oxide and water yet it is not classified as a living thing. List other characteristics of living things not shown by a jet aeroplane.                                     (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Outline three applications of anaerobic respiration.                         (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

 

 

18. Define the following terms.             (3mks)
19. Excretion ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Secretion ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
21. Homeostasis …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

 

19. The diagram below illustrates a nephron from a mammalian kidney.

 

 

 

1. Name the parts labelled A, B,C and D.       (4mks)

A…………………………………………………………………………………………………

B…………………………………………………………………………………………………

C…………………………………………………………………………………………………

D…………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Name the process represented by arrows. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Name three substances that are completely reabsorbed in the part labelled W in a normal human being.                   (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

1. Name the component of blood that do not enter the renal tubule in mammals. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

 

1. How does the part labelled C of a camel compare with that of a hippo?       (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

_______________________________________________________________

BIOLOGY FORM 2 MARKING SCHEME

1. State the use of each of the following.            (3mks)
2. Ribosomes – site for protein synthesis
3. Mitochondria – site for respiration in a cell
4. Lysosome – contains lytic enzymes that destroys worn out cells/cell organels
5. A ‘dolf’ is an offspring between a wolf and a dog. This animal is infertile. Give a reason for this.                                                 (1mk)

Because the wolf and the dog do not belong to the same species hence they give rise to infertile offsprings.

3. a) What is a hypotonic solution?             (1mk)

solution having less solutes than solvent molecules compared to cell sap.

1. b) Explain the changes that will be observed if a drop of human blood is added to this solution. (3mks)

The RBC will be hypertonic to the solution. Water molecules from solution will move into RBC by osmosis. The cell swell, enlarge and burst since they lack cell wall.

1. c) State four importance of osmosis to plants.                         (3mks)

• Helps in the opening and closing of the stomata.
• Aid in uptake of water by root hairs from the soil .
• Facilitates feeding in insectivorous plants.
• Enhances turgidity of cells in herbaceous plants giving them support.
• Assist in movement of water from cell to cell

4. Give two main branches of Biology.             (2mks)

• Botany
• zoology

5. A certain animal has no incisors and no canine but has six premolars and 6 molars in the upper jaw. In the lower jaw there are 6 incisors, 2 canines, 6 premolars and 6 molars.
6. What is the dental formula of the animal?       (1mk)

i  c   pm    m 

1. Calculate the total number of teeth.       (1mk)

32

1. Giving reasons, state the mode of feeding.       (2mks)

Herbivorous/herbivory, they lack upper incisors and canines

6. State and explain three environmental factors that affect transpiration.             (6mks)

• Humidity – at high humidity, the rate of transpiration is low while at low humidity the transpiration rate is high
• Wind – transpiration rate is higher during a windy day because of increased evaporation on leaf surface.
• Temperature – at high temperature, transpiration rate is high while at low temperature the transpiration rate is low

7. A man is of group A+.
8. What type of antigen does his blood have?       (1mk)

• Antigen A, rhesussfactor

1. What types of antibodies are present in his blood?       (1mk)

• Antibody b

1. Which blood groups can he receive blood from?                   (2mks)

• A⁺ and O⁺

8. (a) How is the mitochondrion adapted to its function?             (2mks)

• Has cristae which provide large surface area for attachment of respiratory enzymes.
• Has matrix which contains numerous respiratory enzymes

(b) In which part of the mitochondrion does aerobic respiration take place?                      (1mk)

• Matrix

9. State four structural differences between arteries and veins.                         (4mks)

Arteries	Veins
·       Have narrow lumen	·       Have a wide lumen
·       Lack valves except at the base of the aorta and pulmonary artery	·       Have valves at intervals
·       Have thick elastic walls	·       Have thin and less elastic walls

 

10. State three characteristics of a respiratory surface.             (3mks)

• Thin epithelium for rapid diffusion of respiratorygases
• Large surface area for rapid diffusion of respiratory gases
• Moist surface for respiratory gases to dissolve
• Well vascularised to transportrespiratory gases

 

11. The diagram below illustrates the structure of a gill from a bonny fish.

 

1. Name the structures labelled A, B and C and give their functions.       (6mks)

A: Gill bar – hold gill filament and rakers in position

B: Gill rakes – protect delicate gill filament from damage

C: Gill filament site for gaseous exchange

1. How is structure labeled C adapted to its function?       (1mk)

• Numerous providing large surface area for gaseous exchange.
• Have thin epithelium lining thus reducing distance over which gases diffuse
• Have rich supply of blood vessels to transport respiratory gases/ create a steep diffusion gradient

 

12. State the functions of the following parts of a microscope.             (3mks)
13. Diaphragmit regulates the amount of light passing through the condenser to the specimen
14. Condenser concentrates light rays into state to illuminate the specimen on stage
15. Fine adjustment knob

Raises and lowers body tube over short distance to bring image into shaper focus.

 

13. The diagram below represents a transverse section of a part of a young plant and seen under light microscope.
14. From which part of the plant was the specimen obtained?       (1mk)

• (Dicotyledonous )stem

1. Name the parts labelled J,P and M.       (3mks)

J: Epidermis

P: cambium

M: xylem

 

1. Name the functions of the part labelled M.       (1mk)

• Transports water and mineral salts.

14. State three factors that determine the amount of energy a human requires in a day. (3mks)

• Basal metabolic rate
• Sex
• Age
• Occupation
• Body size

15. State two defects of circulatory system.             (2mks)

• Varicose veins
• Hypertension
• Thrombosis
• Arteriosclerosis

1. b) State three adaptations of erythrocytes to their functions.             (3mks)

• Have biconcave shape that crates a large surface area for diffusion of gases
• Contains haemoglobin which readily combines with oxygen
• Lack nucleus which creates more space for packaging of haemoglobin
• Numerous to offer a large surface area for diffusion of gases.
• Thin for the respiratory gases to take short distance in movement by difussion

16. A jet aeroplane is able to move and oxidise fuel to carbon (IV) oxide and water yet it is not classified as a living thing. List other characteristics of living things not shown by a jet aeroplane.                                     (3mks)

• Growth
• Reproduction
• Irritability
• Feeding

17. Outline three applications of anaerobic respiration.                         (3mks)

• Manufacturing of organic acids
• Sewage treatment
• Making of silage
• Production of biogas
• Baking industry
• Brewing industry

18. Define the following terms.             (3mks)
19. Excretion:removal of metabolic waste products from the body of an organism
20. Secretion:production of substances from cells which are useful to the body
21. Homeostasis:it is maintenance of constant internal conditions despite fluctuations in the external environment
22. The diagram below illustrates a nephron from a mammalian kidney.

 

1. Name the parts labelled A, B,C and D.       (4mks)

A: bowman’s capsule

B: glomerulus filtrate

C: loop of henle

D: collecting duct

1. Name the process represented by arrows. (1mk)

Ultrafiltration

1. Name three substances that are completely reabsorbed in the part labelled W in a normal human being.                   (3mks)

• Amino acids
• Vitamins
• glucose

1. Name the components of blood that do not enter the renal tubule in mammals. (1mk)

• Blood cells
• Plasma proteins

1. How does the part labelled C of a camel compare with that of a hippo?       (2mks)

• it is long and penetrates deep in medulla while in a hippo it is short and confined to the cortex

 

 

FUNCTIONAL COMPOSITION REVISION TOOL KIT FOR FORM FOUR 

NAME……………… ADM. NO: …………………..CLASS…………….

Instructions

1. Using this handout together with class notes and available text books, make distilled notes on each of the compositions. Learning points in your distilled notes should be the format, basic content and l anguage. Sketch of each composition can be drawn as part of your mind maps.

2. In a different book, write each of the composition during the session you will be at home for any school break before end of July.

3. Ensure each composition is discussed and/or marked before closing day in August.

4. Ensure the right use of language, be neat, fluent and use simple language with apt tone.

Composition (year tested)

Sample Question for guide in interpreting content

Major learning point expectations used in awarding of scores during marking

1

2

Shopping list

Imagine that your sibling is to join form one next month. You have to help in the planning for her shopping. The shopping to be made is to have: toilet paper, utensils, soap, bedding, stationery and sanitary material. Write the shopping list.

Format and content  to have: ·    Title to have the owner’s name, the phrase ‘shopping list’, the event for which the shopping is being done and the date for shopping DAU’S SHOPPING LIST FOR JOINING FORM ONE ON 17TH JULY 2020 ·    Body- in table form with items under categories as hinted at in the question. ·    The content to have a table that is fully filled having the following column headers: a) serial number- number of categories, b) Category- list categories with the most important category numbered first, c) items- column for list of items starting with the most important item in each category, d) quantity- column to quantify each item using apt units of measurement, e)description- column for brief description of each item (of opinion, size, shape, age, colour, originality, material, purpose), f) price- column showing the costing of each item in Kenyan Shillings or dollars and g) Shop- column for the shop you expect to get the packed

No

Category

Item

Quantity

Description

Price

Shop

1

Clothing

Shirt

2 pairs

White

@Ksh. 450

Wahu’s shop

Trouser

3 pairs

Navy blue

@Ksh. 700

Kilombelo’s shop

·    Language is brief and in note form.

2

1

Packing list.

Imagine you are one of the members of prefect’s council. You are to go for a students’ retreat at Soya Palace. Your teacher has asked you to pack some items for your use during the trip. Write the packing list that you will take to your teacher for approval before packing.

Format and content to have: ·    Title to have the owner’s name, the phrase ‘packing list’, the event for which the packing is being done and the date for writing ·    Body- in table form with categories as per the question ·    The content to have a table with columns with the following headers: a) serial number- number of categories, b) Category- list categories with the most important category numbered first, c) items- column for list of items starting with the most important item in each category, d) quantity- column to quantify each item using apt units of measurement, e) description- column for brief description of each item being packed. Table is same to shopping list but without price and shop. ·    The language is in note firm and in table format

3

1

Inventory

Imagine you came back to Tumtum Academy from home last week. You brought stationary, clothing, bedding and sanitary material. Write the inventory you had kept by the end of week the first week. Your items should not be more than fifteen.

Format and content to have: ·    Title to have owner’s name, phrase ‘inventory’ and the date of last modification. TUMTUM ACADEMY. LANDO’S SCHOOL INVENTORY AS ON 17TH JUNE 2020. ·    Body- to have basic rubrics in the question included under categories ·    Serial number- column with number for each category ·    Category- column with list of the categories ·    Date in- column for the date the item was entered ·    Item- column for names of items ·    Quantity- column for the quantity of each item ·    Description- column for the description (opinion/ condition, size, shape, age colour, originality, material, purpose) ·    Price/Value- the price in Ksh or the sourcing method such as donation or gift ·    Date out- Column for the date the item was taken out by self or others ·    Quantity out- column for the quantity taken ·    balance- Column for what remained after quantity out ·    Sign/name- column for the sign or name of the person (self or others) who took

No

Date in

Category

Item

Quantity in

Price

Date out

Quantity out

Balance

Sign

The language is that of note form in table format.

 

 

HYGIENE&NUTRITIONSCHEMEOFWORKFORGRADE3TERM3

 

 

 

SCHOOL	GRADE	LEARNING   AREA	TERM	YEAR
	3	HYGIENE&   NUTRITION	3

 

 

 

 

 

1	1	Foodsand Nutrition	Foodand fitness	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearnershould beabletoappreciatethe importanceofeatingthe rightamountsoffoodat therighttimeand doingadequatephysical exercises	Whyisit importanttodo physical exercises regularly?	Learnersareguidedin keeping a recordoftheirparticipationin physicalexercise	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg80-81   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
	2	Foodsand Nutrition	Safetyin foodstorage	Bytheendofthesub- strand,the learnershouldbeableto: identifystoragefacilities for foodat home,	Whatfoods shouldbe cookedbefore eating?	Learnersareguidedtoidentify storageforfood(cupboards, shelves,racks,refrigerator, foodcontainers,sacks)through pictures,videoclips,charts.	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg87   Pictures   Charts   videoclips,computing devices realia	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
2	1	Foodsand Nutrition	Safetyin foodstorage	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearnershould	Whatfoods couldbe eaten	Learnersareguidedtoidentify areas wherecookedandraw	EverydayHygieneand	oralquestionsoral

 

 

 

 

				beableto statewhereto storecookedandraw foodsat home.	raw?	foodscouldbe storedusing pictures,videos. Learnersareguidedtomention factorstoobservewhenstoring food(clean,andcoolplace; cookedfoodcovered;not mixingcookedanduncooked food;free frompests	Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg88	reports   observation
	2	Foodsand Nutrition	Safetyin foodstorage	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearnershould beabletomention factorstoobservewhen storingcookedandraw foodsat home,	Wheredowe storecooked andrawfoods?	Learnersareguidedto give reasonsforproperstorageof food(preventgoing bad;to preservesothatitcan be usedlater;toavoid contaminationfromdirt; topreventfrombeeninfested bypests;topreventwastage) Learnersroleplayhowto store rawandcookedfood.	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg89   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices realia	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
3	1	Foodsand Nutrition	Safetyin foodstorage	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearnershould beabletogivereasons forproperstorageoffood at home, appreciatetheimportance ofproperstorageoffood at home	Howdowe storecooked andrawfoods? Whatisthe importance ofproper storageof cookedandraw foods?	Learnerscansearchstorage facilitiesfromtheinternetusing computingdevices Learnerscantakepicturesor shootvideosusingcomputing deviceson howtheystorefood at homeandshareinclass	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg90   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices realia	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
	2	Safety Education	Common accidentsand Basic Firstaid	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearner shouldbeableto: identifycommon accidentsinthe school,	Whatarethe common accidentsinthe school	Learnersbrainstormon commonaccidentsinthe school(falls,cuts,grazes, sprains	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg95-96   Pictures   Charts	oralquestionsoral   reports observation

 

 

 

 

 

							videoclips   computingdevices realia
4	1	Safety Education	Common accidentsand Basic Firstaid	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearner shouldbeableto: namethecausesof common accidentsinschool	Whatarethe causesof common accidentsinthe school?	Learnersareguidedto identifycausesofcommon accidentsintheclassroom (roughsurfaces,accidents duringgames/sports/P.E, unevenpavements,open windows,litter)using picturesor video	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg99-   100   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices realia	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
	2	Safety Education	Common accidentsand Basic Firstaid	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearner shouldbeableto: nameswayofpreventing commonaccidentsinthe school	Whatarethe causesof common accidentsinthe school?	Ingroups,learnerslistento storiesandshareexperiencesof commonaccidentstheyhave encounteredorwitnessedinthe school	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg102-   103   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices realia	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
5	1	Safety Education	Common accidentsand Basic Firstaid	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearner shouldbeableto: telltheFirst Aid for		Learnersareguidedtotell howtheycanpreventcommon accidentsintheschoolusing demonstration,picturesand	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s	oralquestionsoral   reports

 

 

 

 

 

				faintingand nose bleeding		illustrations. Learnersareguidedtotell theFirstAid forfaintingand nosebleeding.	BookGrade3pg105-   107   Pictures Charts videoclips computingdevices realia	observation
	2	Safety Education	Common accidentsand Basic Firstaid	Bytheendofthesub- strand,thelearner shouldbeableto: demonstrateFirst Aid faintingand nosebleeding.		Learnersareguidedtorole playincarryingoutFirst Aid forfaintingandnose bleeding	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg105-   107   Pictures	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
6	1	Packaged food	Packagedfood	Bytheendofthesub- strand,the learnershouldbeableto: name varioustypesof packagedfoodssoldin thelocality.	Whichfoods are soldin packagesinour locality?	learnersare guidedto namethe variouspacked foodssoldin theirlocalitythroughrealia, pictures,emptypackages,video clips	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg108-   109   Pictures   emptyfoodpackages, pictures,videoclips, computingdevices	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
	2	Packaged food	Packagedfood	Bytheendofthesub- strand,the learnershouldbeableto: identifythebasic informationonpacketsor containersusedfor packagingfood	What informationis foundonthe packages	Learnersareguidedtoidentify thebasicinformationprovided onpackagedfoodusingempty packagematerialsorrealia (expirydate,manufacturedate, storage,useofproduct,quality marklikeKebs, weightof	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg110   Pictures	oralquestionsoral   reports observation

 

 

 

 

 

						contents)	emptyfoodpackages,   pictures,videoclips, computingdevices
7	1	Packaged food	Packagedfood	Bytheendofthesub- strand,the learnershouldbeableto: appreciatetheimportance ofthebasicinformation foundon foodpackets andcontainers	Whyisthe information important?	learnerscantakepicturesof foodpackagesusingcomputing devicesandsharethe informationonpackagesin class Learnerscansearchfor differentfoodpackagesinthe internetusingcomputing devicesandshare findingsinclass	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s   BookGrade3pg111   Pictures   emptyfoodpackages, pictures,videoclips, computingdevices	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
	2	Packaged food	Packagedfood	Bytheendofthesub- strand,the learnershouldbeableto: appreciatetheimportance ofthebasicinformation foundon foodpackets andcontainers	Whyisthe information important?	learnerscantakepicturesof foodpackagesusingcomputing devicesandsharethe informationonpackagesin class Learnerscansearchfor differentfoodpackagesinthe internetusingcomputing devicesandshare findingsinclass	EverydayHygieneand   Nutrition,Learner’s BookGrade3pg111 emptyfoodpackages, pictures,videoclips, computingdevices	oralquestionsoral   reports observation
8				REVISIONFOREND OFYEAREXAM
9				ASSESSMENT

 

APPLICATION PACKAGES (WORD PROCESSORS)
WEEK	LESSON	TOPIC	SUB – TOPIC	OBJECTIVES	LEARNING/TEACHING ACTIVITIES	LEARNING/TEACHING RESOURCES	REFERENCES	REMARKS
1		Reporting from home and settling for first term work
2	1		DEFINITION OF WORD PROCESSOR	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term word processor ·        Explain the purpose of a word processor	·        Q/A discussion	·        Newspapers ·        Letters ·        Cards ·        books	·        Longhorn Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 1-3
	2-3		USING A WORD PROCESSING PACKAGE	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Start a Microsoft word ·        Explain the Microsoft screen layout	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working personal computer	·        Longhorn Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 5-10
3	1		RUNNING THE PROGRAMME	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Save and retrieve ·        Close and exit	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 13-17
	2-3		EDITING AND FORMATTING A DOCUMENT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Select a document ·        Move, copy and delete ·        Insert and type over	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 16-19
4	1		FIND AND REPLACE	By the end of the lesson, the leaner should be able to ·        Define the term find and replace ·        Find and replace a documents ·        Use thesaurus	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Card working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 16-24
	2-3		TEXT FORMATTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Bold, italicize, underline, change fonts	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Cards ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 22-23
5	1		PARAGRAPH FORMATTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Drop cap, sub and superscript ·        Align and indent text	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Cards ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 22-23
	2-3		PARAGRAPH FORMATTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Space and section break ·        Bullet and number ·        Insert columns/page headers and footers	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Newspapers ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 22-23
6	1		SET-UP	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Set up margins ·        Set paper size and orientation	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 33-35
	2-3		SET-UP	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term table ·        Crate tables ·        Insert rows and columns ·        Merge/split rows	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Working computer ·        books	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 37-39
7	1		TABLE CONVERSION/ ARITHMETIC CALCULATIONS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        convert text to a table and vice verse ·        import tables/perform calculations	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Working computer ·        Chalk board	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 40-41
	2-3		MAIL MERGE	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term mail merge ·        Create: main document and data source ·        Merge fields	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Card ·        Working computer ·        Chalk board	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 44-46
8	1		GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term graphic ·        Insert/edit graphics	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Clip art ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 44-49
	2-3		PRINTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term printing ·        Set up the printer and print	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 44
9	1		SPREAD SHEETS (SPREADSHEETS)	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term spreadsheets ·        Explain the application areas of spreadsheet	·        Q/A Discussion	·        Call register ·        Accounts book	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 52-53
	2-3		CREATING A WORKSHEET	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term worksheet ·        Create a worksheet ·        Save/retrieve a worksheet	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Class register ·        Accounts book ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 57-65
10	1		CELL DATA TYPES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term cell data type ·        Explain the different data types	·        Q/A discussion	·        Books	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 66
	2-3		CELL REFERENCING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term cell referencing ·        Explain the different cell referencing ·        Apply cell referencing on a computer	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 66-69
11	1		FUNCTIONS AND FORMULAE	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Differentiate between functions and formulae ·        Apply functions and formulae on a document	·        Q/A demonstration Practical	·        Working computer ·        Books	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 70-73
	2-3		WORKSHEET FORMATTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Format a worksheet: text, numbers, rows, columns and global	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 74-79
12	1		DATA MANAGEMENT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the terms, Sort, filter, total forms ·        Apply the above features	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 73-75
	2-3		CHARTS/GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Definite the terms chart ·        Explain the different charts ·        Insert charts	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 77-79
	END TERM EXAMS/SCHOOLS CLOSE
COMPUTER FORM 2 SCHEMES OF WORK – TERM 2
DATABASES
WEEK	LESSON	TOPIC	SUB – TOPIC	OBJECTIVES	LEARNING/TEACHING ACTIVITIES	LEARNING/TEACHING RESOURCES	REFERENCES	REMARKS
1		Reporting from home and settling for the second term work
2	1		DATABASE	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the database ·        Explain the concept of D/base	·        Q/A discussion	·        Class list	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 93-94
	2-3		DATABASE MODELS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term d/base model ·        Explain the difference d/base models ·        Discuss the features of a database	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 96-98
3	1		DATA ORGANIZATION	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Organize data in a database ·        Start Ms Access	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 97-100
	2-3		MS ACCESS SCREEN LAYOUT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the access screen layout ·        Create a database	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Cards ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 100-104
4	1		EDITING A D/BASE	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Edict a data base	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Cart ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 108-109
	2-3		QUERIES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term query ·        Crate a query	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Letters ·        Card ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 116-117
5	1		UPDATING A QUERY	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Update a query ·        View a query	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 120-122
	2-3		FORM DESIGN	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the form layout ·        Create a form	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Newspaper ·        Working  computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 110-113
6	1		FORMATTING FIELDS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Display records in a form ·        Format fields	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 113
	2-3		REPORTS LAYOUT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define a report ·        Create a report ·        Modify a report	Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working Computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 125-129
7	1		REPORTS LAYOUT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Sort and group data in a report ·        Design labels	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Forms ·        Report ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 40-41
	2-3		PRINTING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term printing ·        Print: form and a report	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Forms ·        Report ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 112
DESKTOP PUBLISHING
8	1		DESKTOP PUBLISHING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define DTP S/W ·        State then purpose of DTPS/W	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Clip art ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 132-134
	2-3		DESIGNING A PUBLICATION	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the DTP S/W ·        Discuss the types of DTP publications	·        Q/A Observation Practical	·        Letters ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 133-134
9	1		DESIGNING A PUBLICATION	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Run the DTP program ·        Explain the DTP screen layout	·        Q/A discussion	·        Cards, certificates, text, calendars, text books	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 134-136
	2-3		DESIGNING A PUBLICATION	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Set up a publication ·        Manipulate text and graphics	Q/A demonstration practical	·        Cards, certificates, text calendars, textbooks ·        Working Computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 139-143
10	1		TEXT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Design page layout ·        Use a ruler to measure	·        Q/A discussion	·        Calendars, textbooks	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 158
	2-3		GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term graphics ·        Change full stroke ·        Reshape objects	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working Computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 150
11	1		GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Copy an object ·        Import and wrap text	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 161-162
	2&3		GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Group objects ·        Lock objects	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 164-168
12/13	1		ROTATE/CROP	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the terms, sort, filter, total, forms ·        Apply the above features	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 164
	THE SCHOOL CLOSES/END OF TERM EXAMS
COMPUTER FORM 1 SCHEMES OF WORK – TERM 1
INTERNET AND E-MAIL
WEEK	LESSON	TOPIC	SUB – TOPIC	OBJECTIVES	LEARNING/TEACHING ACTIVITIES	LEARNING/TEACHING RESOURCES	REFERENCES	REMARKS
1	Reporting from home and settling for the first term work
2	1		INTERNET AND E-MAIL	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term internet ·        Explain the development of internet	·        Q/A discussion ·        Demonstration ·        observation	·        internet ·        Text book ·        Working Computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 168-169
	2-3		IMPORTANCE OF THE INTERNET	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the importance of the internet	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 266-275
3	1		INTERNET CONNECTIVITY	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the internet connectivity ·        Explain elements of IC	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Modem S/W ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 273-276
	2-3		INTERNET SERVICES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the internet services	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Letters ·        Cards ·        Books ·        computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 273-276
	1		ACCESSING INTERNET	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Log in/Sign in ·        Surf/browse	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Web pages ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 279
4	2-3		HYPER LINKS AND SEARCH ENGINES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term search engine ·        Use search engines	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Letters ·        Card ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 177-179
5	1		ELECTRONIC MAIL	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the term e-mail ·        Discuss the use of email s/w	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 178-180
	2-3		E-MAIL	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        State the e-mail facilities ·        Compose mails ·        Check mails	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 30-37
6	1		E-MAIL	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Manipulate an e-mail	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 180
	2-3		SET-UP	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Fax e-mail ·        Attach files	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Websites ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 181-182
7	1		TEL MESSAGING	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the term tel messaging ·        Develop contact mgt	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Handouts ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 181-182
	2-3		EMERGING ISSUES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Explain the emerging issues ·        Search for the emerging issues in the net	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Websites ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 182-183
8	1		GRAPHICS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term graphic ·        Insert/edit graphics	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Web sites ·        Web pages ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 44-49
	2-3		G. DATA SECURITY AND CONTROLS	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term data security ·        Identify security threats on ICT	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 185-186
9	1		CONTROL MEASURES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Discuss the control measures on ICT	·        Q/A discussion	·        Internet ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 186-188
	2-3		COMPUTER CRIMES	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the term computer crimes ·        Explain the computer crimes	·        Q/A Demonstration Practical	·        Books ·        Internet ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 188-190
10	1		ICT PROTECTION	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Discuss ICT protection measures	Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Internet ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 190-193
	2-3		LAWS OF ICT	By the end of the lesson, the learner should be able to ·        Define the terms ethics ·        Explain the ethical issues	·        Q/A demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Internet ·        Handouts ·        Books ·        Working computer	·        Computer studies by S.John Onunga page 327-328
11	1		ICT LEGISLATION	By the end of the lesson,  the learner should be able to ·        Discuss ICT laws	·        Q/A discussion		·        Computer studies by S.John Onunga page 328-331
	2-3		WORKSHEET FORMATTING	By the end of the lesson, the earner should be able to ·        Format a w/sheet: text, numbers, rows, columns and global	·        Q/A Demonstration practical	·        Books ·        Handouts ·        Working computer	·        Longhorn Computer studies Secondary. S.Mburu, G. Chemwa page 190-193
	SCHOOLS CLOSES END OF YEAR

 

REVISING KCPE

KNEC PAST PAPERS

TOPICALLY ANALYSED PRACTICE

QUESTIONS FOR ALL SUBJECTS

CONTENTS

 

SUBJECT

TOPICS

PAGE
MATHEMATICS
1.Numbers 6 –8
2.Operation on numbers 8 – 12
3.Measurement (length ,area ,volume) 12 –16
4.Weight/Mass 16 – 18
5.Money 18-22
6.Postal Charges 23-24
7.Time And Speed 25-27
8.Geometry 27-36
9. Algebra 37-39
10.Tables and graphs 39-47
11.scale drawing 47-48
12.Ratio and proportion 48-49
ENGLISH

1. Topics Analysis table 50-51
2.ALL QUESTIONS & BEST compositions 2003-2010 52-117
KISWAHILI
1.Ubashiri wa maswali ya KCPE 2003-2010 199-120
2.Insha bora, Maswali yote ya KCPE 2003-2010 121-186
SCIENCE
1.Weather and astronomy 188-189
2.Human body 190-191
3.Plants 191-193
4.Animals 193-194
5.Health Education 195-196

6.Environment 196-197
7.Soil 197-199
8.water 199-200
9.Food and Nutrition 200-201
10 Properties of matter 202-207
11.Energy 207-213
12.Making work easier 213-216

SOCIAL STUDIES
Physical Environment 218-232
People and Population 233-235
Social and Cultural Activities 236-238
Resources & Economic Activities 239-247
Political development 248-254
Law peace & Reconciliation 255-256
Democracy &Human rights 256-257
Government of Kenya 257-259
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
Creation 260
God speaks to us in the old Testament 261-264
Jesus and the New Testament 265-268
The early church & the Christian community 269-270
African Traditional religious heritage 271-272
Contemporary Christian living 273-275
Bible library 275

K.C.P.E 2011 276- 316
MARKING SCHEMES 317 –325

 

 

 

K.C.P.E

K.N.E.C.

MATHEMATICS

2000-2011

K.C.P.E REVISION 5
TOPICALLY ANALLYSED

MATHEMATICS
NUMBERS
Place value and Total value
1. Which one of the following numbers has the smallest value?
A. 111010 B.101101 C.110110
D.101011 Q2,2000

2. What is the number 29 853 when rounded to the nearest thousand?
A. 29,000
B, 29,850
C. 29,900
D. 30,000 Q4,2000

3. What is the place value digit 5 in the number 1050067?
A. Thousands
B. Ten thousands
C. Fifty thousands
D. Hundred thousands Q5,2000
4. What is 4990678 rounded off to the nearest thousand?
A. 4990000

B. 4990700

C. 4991000

D. 5000000 Q2,2001

5. What is the place value of the digit 5 in the number 4 573 261?
A. Hundred thousands

B. Five hundred thousands

C. Millions

D. Five millions Q8,2001

6. How many times is the value of the digit 8 more
K.C.P.E REVISION

than the value of digit 2 in the number 850 265? A. 799 800
B. 4 000

C. 1 000

D. 4 Q28,2002

7. What is 899 470 rounded off to the nearest ten thousand?
A. 890 000

B. 899 000

C. 900 000

D. 900 470 Q35,2002

 

8. What is the place value of 3 in the number 7830402? A.Hundreds thousands
B.Ten thousands C.Thousands
D.Hundreds Q1,2003

9. What is 468.3894 rounded off to the nearest tenth? 470
468.3

468.39

468.4 Q8,2003

10. What is 399.90485 rounded off to the nearest hundredth?

A. 400

B. 399.905

C. 399.90

D. 399.9 Q1,2004

 

6

11. What is the place value of the digit 7 in the number 3470268?

A. Thousands

B. Ten thousands

C. Seventy thousands

D. Hundred thousands Q5,2004

12. Which one of the following is 50205082 in words?

A. Fifty million two hundred and fifty thousand and eighty two.
B. Fifty million twenty five thousand and eighty two.
C. Fifty million two hundred thousand five hundred and eighty two.
D. Fifty million two hundred and five thousand and eighty two. Q2 2005

13. What is the number 29.34046 rounded off to the nearest thousandth?
A. 29.3

B. 29.34

C. 29.340

D. 29.341 3,2005

114. What is the sum of the total values of the digits in the hundreds and ten thousands positions in the

number 693582?

A. 95 000

B. 90 500

C. 10 100

D. 9 500 Q 5,2006

15. What is the place value of the digit 7 obtained after

working out 0.2016 ÷ 28? A Tenths.
B Hundredths. C Thousandths.
D Ten thousandths.
Q2,2007

16. What is the total value of digit 6 in the number

40607580?

A Six million,

B Six hundred thousand C Sixty thousand.
D Hundred thousand.
Q5,2008

 

17. What is the difference between the total value of digit 3 and digit 9 in the number 6803901 ?

A. 6

B. 2 100

C. 3 000

D. 3 900 Q10, 2009

 

18. What is the place value of digit 6 in the number 706053?

A. Six hundreds

B. Hundreds

C. Six thousands

D. Thousands Q4,2010

K.C.P.E REVISION 7

Reading and writing numbers in symbols and words
19. Which one of the following is 3200104 in words?
A. Thirty two thousand one hundred and four.
B. Three million two thousand one hundred and four.
C. Three hundred and twenty thousand one hundred and four.
D. Three million two hundred thousand one hundred and four. Q1,2000
20. Which one of the following is six million, eighty five thousand, three hundred and seven?
A. 6085037

B. 6805037

C. 6085307

D. 6850307 Q1,2001

21. Which of the following is 5505055 in words?

A. Five million, fifty five thousand and fifty five

B. Five million, five hundred thousand, five hundred and fifty five
C. Five million, five hundred and five thousand and fifty five
D. Five million, five hundred and fifty thousand and fifty five. Q1,2002

22. Which of the following is 30030030 in words? A.Thirty million three hundred and thirty.
B. Thirty million three thousand and thirty.

C. Thirty million thirty thousand and thirty.

D. Thirty million three hundred thousand and thirty.
Q5,2003

23. What is three million six thousand four hundred and seventy two less one thousand written in symbols?

A. 3599472

B. 3005472

C. 3007472

D. 3059472 Q3,2004

24. Which one of the following is 50205082 in words?

A. Fifty million two hundred and fifty thousand and eighty two.
B. Fifty million twenty five thousand and eighty two.
C. Fifty million two hundred thousand five hundred and eighty two.
D. Fifty million two hundred and five thousand and eighty two. Q1 ,2005
25. What is 73121025 written in words?

A. Seven million three hundred and twelve thousand one hundred and twenty five.
B. Seventy three million one hundred and twenty one thousand and twenty five.
C. Seven hundred and thirty one million two hundred and ten thousand and twenty five.
D. Seventy three million twelve thousand one

hundred and twenty five.
Q1,2006

26. Which one of the following is 1100000.001 written in words?
A One million one hundred thousand and one hundredth.

B One million one thousand and one thousandth.

C One million one hundred thousand one tenth.

D One million one hundred thousand and one thousandth
Q1,2007

K.C.P.E REVISION 8

27. Which one of the following numbers is one million five thousand three hundred and eight?

A 1005308

B 1050308

C 1500308

D 1005038 Q1,2008

 

28. Which one of the following numbers is twenty-six million, four hundred and thirty thousand, two hundred and nine in symbols?

A. 26432009

B. 2643209

C. 26430209

D. 264302009 Q1 2009

 

29. Which one of the following is 60400502 in words?

A. Six million four hundred thousand five hundred and two.
B. Sixty million four thousand five hundred and two.
C. Sixty million forty thousand five hundred and two.
D. Sixty million four hundred thousand five hundred and two.
Q1 2010

Squares and square roots GCD and LCM
30 .What is the L.C.M. of 15, 20 and 30?
A. 120
B. 60
C. 15
D. 5 Q10,2000

31. What is the square root of 7 9/16? A. 2 3/4
B. 1 3/8

C. 11/16

D. 7 3/4 Q19,2001

32. In a school, one bell rings after every 30 minutes while the other rings after every 35 minutes. If the two bells rang together at 8.15 a.m., at what time did they ring together next?
A. 11.45 a.m.

B. 3.30 a.m.

C. 9.20 a.m.

D. 1.45 a.m. Q43,2001

33. A rectangular plot measures 64 m by 16 m. What would be the length of the side of a square plot
with

the same area?

A. 32 m

B. 40 m

C. 512 m

D. 1 024 m Q50,2002

 

34. What is the difference in value between the LCM of 8 and 12, and the GCD of 36 and 54?
A.104 B.84 C.14
D. 6 Q 11,2003

35. The floor of a square room is covered completely by four equal carpets. The area of each carpet is 322∕49m2.
What is the length of one side of the room in metres?
A.644∕9 B.73∕7 C.35∕7
D.16∕7 Q48,2003

36.. What is the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) of the numbers 32, 48 and 56?
A. 8

B. 168

C. 672

D. 86016 Q2,2004

37. What is the square root of 17/ 9? A. 4/9
B. 8/9

C. 11/3

D. 3 13/81 Q24,2004

38. What is the smallest number that can be divided by 12,

18 and 27 without a remainder?

A. 108

B. 36
C. 3

D. 5832 Q4,2005

39.. What is the square root of 0.0576?

A. 0.0024

B. 0.024

C. 0.24

D. 2.4 Q23, 2006

40. By how much is the LCM of 40 and 60 more than their GCD?
A 20

B 100

C 120

D 140 Q9,2007

41. What is the value of √4.2849 ? A. 0.207
B. 2.07

C. 2.7

D. 207 Q19,2007

42. What is the square of 6 1/4 ?

A 39 1/16

B 36 1/16

C. 12 1/2

D. 2 1/2 Q4,2008

43. What is the Greatest Common Divisor of 120 and 270?

A 3

B 10

C 30

D 1 080 Q8,2008

44. What is the difference between the L.C.M. and the
G.C.D. of the numbers 24, 32, 40?

A. 8

B. 160

C. 400

D. 80 Q38 2009

45.What is the value of √21/4 ÷ 27/9 × (2/3)2 ?

A. 6/25

B. 11/9

Conversion of fractions to percentages and vice versa
49. In a certain school, the fractions of boys in classes 5,6,7 and 8 are as follows: class 5 is 12/16, class 6

C. 11/5

is 13/

26, class 7 is 10/25

and class 8 is 10/

18.

D. 2/5 Q47,2009

46. Which one of the numbers below is the square of 2 4/5
A. 72 21/25

B. 41 16/25

C. 39 1/5

D. 5 3/5 Q8,2010

47. Three bells are set to ring out at intervals of 4 minutes, 6 minutes and 9 minutes respectively. If they all ring together now, after how many minutes will they ring together next?

A. 12

B. 18

C. 36

D. 216 Q16, 2010

 

Conversion of decimals and fraction and vice versa

48. What is 1. 28978 correct to three decimal places? A. 1.28.
B. 1.289

C. 1.29

D. 1.290 Q2,2006

Which class has the least number of boys if all the classes have the same number of pupils?
A. Class 5

B. Class 6

C. Class 7

D. Class 8 Q 20,2007

OPERATION ON NUMBERS
Operation involving whole numbers

1. 23. In 1998, Wanja harvested 4 676 bags of maize. This was 168 bags more than those she harvested in 1997. How many bags of maize did she harvest in 1997?
A. 177
B. 513 C.4508
D.5021 Q23,2000
2. Muyaka had money as follows: 4 notes of sh 1000 3 notes of sh. 500 16 notes of sh. 200 11 notes of sh. 100 9 notes of sh. 50
She changed all the money into five – shilling coins. How many five- shilling coins did she get?
A. 51 250
B. 10250 .
C. 2050
D. 370 Q40,2000
3. Moki had 190 fifty shilling-notes. He changed

sh. 6000 into one thousand shilling-notes and the rest into five hundred shilling-notes.
How many five hundred shilling-notes did he get?

A. 9500

B. 19

C. 3500

D. 7 Q23,2001

cost of the sweets in each carton?

4. Cheptoo was hired for 8 hours a day from Monday to Friday and 5 hours on Saturday. She was paid
sh 5 850 per week. Cheptoo now works 10 hours a day from Monday to Friday and is free on Saturday.
What is her weekly pay if she is paid at the same rate per hour as before?
A. sh 4 500

B. sh 5 265

C. sh 5 300

D. sh 6 500 Q18,2002

5. A vendor kept money in a box and in a tin. In the box there were:
15 ten-shilling coins

23 twenty-shilling coins

36 five-shilling coins

In the tin there was an equal number of ten-shilling

and five-shilling coins and no twenty-shilling coin.

The total amount of money in both, the box and
tin,

was sh 1 000.

How many five-shilling coins were in the tin?

A. 14

B. 21

C. 28

D. 70 Q22,2002

6. A factory produced 65 160 sweets. The sweets were packed in packets each holding 24 sweets. The cost of each packet was sh 72. All the packets
were then equally put in 15 cartons. What was the

A. sh 181

B. sh 13 032

C. sh 195 480

D. sh 312 768 Q29,2002

7. Kamau wants to get change for a sh. 1000 note. The change is to consist of sh 500, sh 200, sh 100 and sh 50 notes. What is the smallest number of notes he can get?

A.4

B.5

C.6

D. 7 Q9,2003

8. Twenty members of a group contributed sh. 80 000 each to buy a piece of land. They already had sh. 120 000 in a bank out of which sh. 20 000 was the remain in the bank and the rest spent in buying the piece of land.

How much did the land cost?

A.Sh. 1 720 000

B.Sh. 1 700 000

C.Sh. 1 600 000

D.Sh. 180 000 Q31,2330

9. The number of children at a film show was 49 more than that of adults. The entry fee for each child was sh. 15 while that of each adult was sh. 30. The total amount of money paid by the children was sh. 2
055. How much money was paid by the children and the adults’ altogether?

A.Sh. 7 635

B.sh. 4 695

C.sh.3 375

D.sh.2 640 Q36,2003

10. Omala and Mwite had packets of tea to be packed into cartons. Each carton holds 46 packets. Omala packed 63 cartons and remained with 24 packets while Mwite packed 54 cartons and remained with

19 packets. How many more packets of tea had Omala than Mwite?

A. 419

B. 414

C. 409

D. 5 425 Q45,2005

11. A youth group organised a film show to raise funds. Two hundred and eighty men attended the film
show. The number of women who attended was half the number of men, while the number of youths was three times the number of both men and women. The charges were sh 50 per adult and sh 20 per youth. How much money was raised?

A. Sh 46 200

B. Sh 37 800

C. Sh 25 200

D. Sh 21 000 Q30,2006

12. In a certain village the total number of women and

children was 34 603. The number of women and men was 18 623. If the number of men was 5 984, what was the number of children in that village?

A 12 639

B 15 980

C 28 619

D 21 964 Q17,2007

13. Ahmed earns sh 560 500 per year. Oloo earns three times as much as Alice. Alice earns twice as much as Ahmed.
How much money, altogether, do they all earn in a year?

A. sh 1 121 000

B. sh 3 363 000

C. sh 4 484 000

D. sh 5 044 500 Q28,2008

14. During an election there were four candidates K, L, M and N. Candidate M received 3 421 votes which was 1 677 votes more than N received and 4 147 votes less than L received. The total number of valid votes cast was 23 406.

How many votes did K receive? A 10 673
B 12 733

C 14 161

D 7 319 Q49,2008

15. Mwende had mangoes. She ate 5 and shared the remaining among her 6 friends. She however found that she needed 2 more mangoes if each of the friends was to get 4 mangoes. How many mangoes had she at the beginning?

A. 22
B. 27
C. 29
D. 31 Q6,2009
16.A school contributed money for a project as follows:
Pupils in class 1-4 contributed sh 10 each Pupils in class 5 –8 contributed sh 20 each Teachers contributed sh 200 each
The Headteacher contributed sh 500

Each class in the school was double streamed with 30 pupils per stream. The number of teachers including the headteacher was 26. how much money was contributed all together?

A. sh 12 700

B. sh 15 100

C. sh 19 900

D. sh 20 100 Q22,2009

17. At a sports meeting the number of men was 200. The number of girls was three times that of men and 120 more than that of women. The number of boys was 30 more than that of girls. What was the total number of people at the meeting?

A. 719

B. 1 850

C. 1 910

D. 2 150 Q30,2010

 

Operation involving fractions

*18. . Onacha spent V9 of his salary on food, % of the remainder on school fees and the rest on leisure. If his salary was sh. 5 400, how much money did he spend on leisure?
A. sh. 4200
B. sh. 1800
C. sh. 1200
D. sh. 750 Q28,2000
19. Sara and Lucia shared a piece of cloth such that Lucia got three times as much as Sara. What fraction of the cloth did Sara get?
A. 3/4
B. 2/3
C. 1/3
D. ¼ Q5,2001
20. The fractions 2/ , 5/ , 3/ and 7/ are to be
arranged from the largest to the smallest. Which
of

the following is in the correct order?

21. What is the value of 11/2 – 1/4 × 11/3
11/3 + 1/6 ÷ 1/2
A. 1 17/18
B. 7/18
C. 1
D. 7/10 Q36,2002

22. What is the value of 7⁄8 of (4⁄5 + 1⁄2) ÷ 1⁄4?

A…91⁄320
B.27⁄10 C. 411⁄20,
D.44 ⁄5 Q12,2003

23. Kaole, Mwasi and Mbithe shared some money.
Mwasi got 2⁄7 of the money and Mbithe got 2⁄3 of the remainder. What fraction of the money did Kaole receive?
A.16⁄26 B.11⁄21 C. 5⁄21
D.1⁄21 Q39,2003

24. Which is the correct order of writing the fractions 3/8, 5/16
,11/32 ,3/48 from the largest to the smallest? A. 13/48 , 11/32 , 5/16 , 3/8
B. 3/8 , 5/16 , 11/32 , 13/48

C. 13/48 ,5/16 , 11/32 , 3/8

D. 3/8 , 11/32 , 5/16 , 13/48 Q4,2004

 

25. What is the value of 5/8 + 1/8 ÷ 2/3 – 3/8 ?

A. 13/56

A. 7/

5 3
6 , 4

, 2/

B. 3/4

B. 5/ 3

2 7
3 , 12

C. 7/16

7 3 5 2
12, 4 6 , 3

D. 7/ 2/ 3/ , 5/ Q2,2002

D. 1/3 Q12,2004

26. Muli spent 3/10 of his salary on food and 2/5 on rent. he was left with sh 2100. What was his salary?

A. sh 3 000

B. sh 3 675

C. sh 4 900

D. sh 7 000 Q42,2004

27. Amina shared money among her three children. The first got 1/3 while the second got ¼ of the money.
The third got ½ of what remained. Amina was left with sh 1500. How much money had she before it was shared?

A. sh 3 000

B. sh 5 700

C. sh 7 200 Q27,2005

28.. Which is the correct order of writing the fractions

3/4, 7/9, 4/5 and 9/11 from the largest to the smallest? A. 3/4, 4/5, 7/9, 9/11
B. 9/11, 7/9, 4/5, 3/4

C. 9/11, 7/9, 3/4, 4/5

D. 9/11, 4/5, 7/9, 3/4 Q49,2005
pupil intends to add the fractions 2/7 , 3/8 and 5/6 . Which one of the following numbers should she choose as the least common denominator?
A. 56
B. 48
C. 168
D. 336 Q13,2006
30.What is the value of 11/6 ÷ 1/4 × 2/3 + 5/8 ?

A. 59/72

B. 3 1/72

C. 3 53/72

D. 7 5/8 Q37,2006

31.Moraa shared money among her four children, Muta, Somo, Nduta and Aroya. Muta got 1/3 of the
money while Somo got 1/2 of the remainder. The rest
was shared equally between Nduta and Aroya. What fraction of the money did Aroya get?
A. 1/12
B. 1/6
C. 1/3
D. 1/2 Q48,2006

32.What is the value of 32/5 – 2 1/4 × 11/3 + 1/6 of 1 5/7 ?

A. 2 32/35

B. 1 86/105

C. 24/35

D. 4/35 Q4,2007

33.A farmer used ½ of her land for planting maize 1∕5 for

planting beans, 1/3 of the remainder for grazing and the rest for horticulture. If the farmer used 10 ha for grazing, how much land does she have?

A 100 ha

B 33 1/3 ha C 30 ha
D 11 1/30 ha Q28,2007

34. At a film show 1/5 of the attendants were boys while 1/4 were girls. Two fifths of the remainder were men and the rest were women
What fraction of the total attendants were women?

A. 11/20

B. 11/50

C. 3/20

D. 33/100 Q18,2008

35. What is the value of

 

 

A B C
D 111/25 Q44,2008

36. In a meeting 3/5 of the attendants were women, 1/4 of the reminder were men and the rest were children. There were 80 men in that meeting. How many children were there?

A. 120

B. 240

C. 480

D. 800 Q19,2009

37. What is the value of 2/5 ÷ 1 2/3 of 3/4?

A. 8/9

B. 1/2

C. 9/50

D. 8/25 Q14,2010

38. The fractions 3/7, 2/5, 5/8, 1/2 are to be arranged from the smallest to the largest. Which one of the following is the correct order?

A. 1/2, 2/5, 3/7, 5/8

B. 2/5, 3/7, 1/2, 5/8

C. 3/7, 2/5, 1/2, 5/8

D. 5/8, 1/2, 3/7, 2/5 Q18,2010

39.A teacher had a certain number of books. She gave
1 3 of the books to John and ¼ to Lucy. She also

gave 1/10 of the remaining books to Patel. If the teacher was left with 18 books, how many books had she given to Lucy?

 

 

 

Operations involving decimals.
40. What is 23.1408 correct to three decimal places? A. 23.0
B. 23.1
C. 23.140
D. 23.141 Q8,2000
41. What is the value of
0.3 x 0.94 + (0.304 + 0.123 – 0.4)?
A. 1.3495
B. 1.7725
C. 0.8935
D. 0.60225 Q15,2000
42. What is the value of 0.499 + 12.3 correct to 2 decimal places?
A. 13.00

B. 12.80

C. 12.79

D. 12.799 Q4,2001

43. What is the value of

0.48 × 0.0135

0.016

A. 40.5

B. 4.05

C. 0.405

D. 0.0405 Q14,2001

44. What is the value of 5.0 – 2.65 × 0.001? A. 4.999735
B. 4.99735

C. 4.9735

D. 0.00235 Q11,2002

45. What is the value of 21 ÷ 8 correct to two decimal places?
A. 2.6

B. 2.62

C. 2.625

D. 2.63 Q19,2002

 

46. What is the value of ?
A.263.5 B.2.635 C.0.2635

D.0.02635 Q6,2003

47. What is the value of 8 ÷ 0.02 + 1.35 x 0.4?

A. 400.54

B. 40.54

C. 160.54

D. 405.4 Q6,2005
48. During an election the winning candidate got 0.425 of the votes cast while the other two candidates
got 0.39 and 0.183 respectively. There were 48 spoilt votes.How many votes did the winning candidate

get?

A. 24 000

B. 10 200

C. 9 360

D. 4 392 Q39,2005

 

49.The decimals 0.09402, 0.09042, 0.09024, 0.09204
are to be written from the largest to the smallest. Which one of the following is the correct order?

A. 0.09204, 0.09402, 0.09042, 0.09024

B. 0.09402, 0.09042, 0.09204, 0.09024

C. 0.09402, 0.09204, 0.09042, 0.09024

D. 0.09024, 0.09042, 0.09204, 0.09402
Q10,2006

50.What is the value of 0.6 – 0.4 × 0.23 – 0.01?

A. 0.036

B. 0.044

C. 0.498

D. 0.518 Q20,2006

 

51. What is 6.0947 rounded off correct to two decimal places?
A 6.15

B 6.10

C 6.095

D 6.09 Q3,2007

52. In a certain school, the fractions of boys in classes 5,6,7 and 8 are as follows: class 5 is 12/16, class 6 is 13/26, class 7 is 10/25 and class 8 is 10/18.
Which class has the least number of boys if all the classes have the same number of pupils?

A. Class 5

B. Class 6

C. Class 7

D. Class 8 Q20,2007

53. What is the number 21.046 rounded off to 2 decimal

places?

A 21.46

B 21.04

C 21.00

D 21.05 Q3,2008

54. What is the value of

A. 9

B. 90

C. 27.7

D. 23.61 Q20,2008

55. Bongo gave 0.12 of his land to his wife, 0.25 to his son and 0.3 to his daughter. If he had 2.4 hectares of land, how many hectares was he left

D. 25.9 Q32,2009

57.A school offers only 4 games. Each pupil was asked to choose one favourite game out of the 4.
0.4 of the pupils chose football

of the pupils chose netball

of the remaining pupils chose basketball. The rest who were 112 pupils, chose hockey

What was the total number of pupils who chose football and netball ?

A. 240

B. 160

C. 400

D. 80 Q39,2009

58.What is the number 5826.3407 rounded off to 3 decimal places?

with? A. 5826.34
A. 0.72 B. 5826.340
B 0.288 C. 5826.341
C 0.6 D. 5826.3410 Q2,2010

D 0.792 Q38,2008

40.What is the number 15.76 rounded off to the nearest tenth?

A. 15.7

B. 15.8

C. 16

D. 20 Q20,2009

56.What is the value of 2.8 – 0.5 × 3.2 + 3 ?

59. Sera shared part of her land among her four children. Their shares were 0.29, 0.26, 0.21 and 0.14 of the land. If the part that was shared was 36
hectares, how many hectares of the land remained?

A. 3.6

B. 40

C. 0.1

D. 4 Q43,2010

 

A. 4.2

B. 1.8

C. 10.5

Combined operations

60. What is the value of 24 (72 — 69) + 6 x 4 ? 12
A. 8
B. 26
C. 30
D. 74 Q6,2000
61. What is the value of 82(92 — 32) ? 42×62

66. What is the value of 7(82 – 72) + 63 ÷ 7?

A. 16 .

B. 23

C. 24

D. 114 Q16,2006

67. What is the value of

A. 4B. 8 A 5
C. 2
D. 2/3
Q7,2000 B 11
62. What is the value of C 13

3/4 (1/2+ 2/5 ÷ 1/3) – 1/5 × 3/8 ?

A. 2/5
B. 37/40
C. 11/5
D. 119/20 Q6,2001
63. What is the value of 3(52-42) + 51 ÷ 17?

A.410⁄17 B.9 C.30
D.62 Q2, 2003

64. What is the value of 0.5 + 0.2 × 4.1– 0.31
0.02

A. 128

B. 60

C. 132.65

D. 50.5 Q9,2004

65.What is the value of 24 ÷ 3 + 4 × 5 – 8 ÷ 4 × 10 + 1?

A. 7

B. 9

C. 41

D. 131 Q17,2004

D 31 Q2, 2008

 

68. What is the value of 6(24-18) + 6 × 4 ?

6

A. 30

B. 25

C. 10

D. 28 Q11, 2009

69.What is the value of 4/5 + 3/5 of (2/3 -1/5) + 3/4 × 2/5?

A. 119/50
B. 1143/150
C. 13/10

D. 123/150 Q21,2009

70. What is the value of 3(42 + 22) – 5 x 6 ÷ 2

3 x 5

A. 59

B. 17

C. 11

D. 3 Q5,2010

71. What is the value of

0.77 + 5.00 of (0.57 – 0.33) + 0.88 x 0.4 ?

A. 2.322

B. 1.7368

C. 1.140

D. 0.90592 Q33,2010

 

Percentage increase and decrease
72. The marked price of a pair of shoes was sh.250. During a sale the price was reduced to sh.200. What was the percentage decrease in price?
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D .20% Q9,2000
73. Flour is packed in 2.5 kg packets. If the weight of flour in the packets is increased by 25%, what would be the new weight of the packet?
A. 3.125 kg
B. 2 kg
C. 1.875 kg
D. 0.625 kg Q21,2001
74. The bus fare from one town to another was decreased by 20% and later increased by 20%. If the original fare was sh. 50, what is the new fare?
A. sh 32
B. sh 40
C. sh 48
D. sh 50 Q49,2002
75. In one year the population of Gazelles in a park was 3 400. In the following year, the population reduced by 25%. What was the size of the population of gazelles after the reduction?

A.850

B.4 250

C.3 375

D.2 550 Q23,2003

76. Cherono spent sh 8 100 on food in May. In the month of June she spent 10 % less on food than in May. How much money did she spend on food in June?

A. sh 810
B. sh 7 290
C. sh 9 000
D. sh 8 910 Q26,2005
77. In the year 2002, the number of pupils in a school was 800. In 2003 the number of pupils increased by 40%. How many pupils were there in 2003?
A. 320
B. 480
C. 840
D. 1 120 Q12,2006
78.A playing field measured 50 m by 30 m. The measurements of the sides of the field were
later increased to 80 m by 60 m. What was the percentage increase of the area of the field?
A 4 800
B 3 300
C 900
D 220 Q40, 2007
79. The length of a rectangular plot is 30 m and the width is
20 m. Each side of the plot is increased by 10%. What is the increase in the area of the plot?
A 6 m2

B 126m2 C. 600 m2
D 140 m2 Q35, 2008

80. In year 2005, enrolment in a school was 450. In the year 2006, the enrollment decreased by 10% from that of year 2005. The enrollment increased by 20% in year 2007. What will be the enrollment in the year 2007?

A. 396

B. 486

C. 495

D. 584 Q48,2009

81. At the beginning of year 2005, there were 800 pupils in a school of whom 55% were boys. At the end of the year the number of girls had increased by 20% and that of boys had decreased by 10%. What was the total number of pupils in the school at the end of the year?

A. 828

B. 916

C. 826

D. 880 Q37, 2010

 

Number sequence

82. What is the next number in the sequence 7, 16, 32, 57,—-
A.93
B. 89
C. 82
D 63 Q20,2000
83. What is the next number in the pattern 2, 6, 11,17, ,

….?

A. 28

B. 24

C. 23

D. 21 Q3,2001

84. What is the next number in the pattern 84, 62, 43, 27, ?
A. 16

B. 14

C. 13

D. 11 Q41,2002

85. What is the next number in the pattern 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, , ?
A. 19

B. 25

C. 43

D. 29 Q20,2004

86. What is the next number in the pattern 1, 3, 7, 15 . .
. ?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 25

D. 31 Q21,2005

 

87. What is the next number in the pattern: 1.2, 2.4, 4.8, ——, …?
A. 6.0

B. 7.2

C. 8.4

D. 9.6 Q9,2006

89. What is the next number in the pattern 16, 44, 82, 130,…?

A 188

B 212

C 178

D 140 Q16,2007

90. What is the next number in the pattern

1, 4, 10, 19…?

A 28

B 29

C 31

D. 34 Q11,2008

91. What is the next number in the sequence 6, 13, 24, 37, ?
A. 58

B. 56

C. 54

D. 52 Q28, 2009

92. What is the next number in the pattern 10, 11, 15, 24, 40, 65, ?
A. 105

B. 101

C. 90

D. 74 Q9,2010

 

MEASUREMENT ;
LENGTH, AREA & VOLUME
Problems involving conversion units of length

1. Twenty litres of milk was given to a class of 50 pupils to share equally. How many decilitres of milk did each pupil get?
A. 0.4

B. 4

C. 40

D. 400 Q19,2006
2. A tailor had 17.5 m of cloth material. From this material she made 2 dresses each requiring 3.75 m
of material, and 3 jackets each requiring 2.4 m of material. What length of material remained?
A. 1.4 m
B. 2.8 m
C. 11.35 m
D. 14.7 m Q49, 2006

3. A fruit vendor prepared juice which filled eight 3-litre containers. He later put the juice in 2-decilitre bottles for

sale. How many such bottles of juice did he get? A 12
B 120

C 1 200

D 12 000 Q13, 2007

Perimeter and circumference
4. The figure below represents a design of a window. The design consists of a square of sides 5 cm, a circle of diameter 7 cm and a rectangular frame measuring 26 cm by 15 cm. The square and the circle are joined to each other and to the frame by lines each 4 cm long.

 

What is the total length, in cm of the metal needed to make the design? (Take n =22/?)
A. 42
B. 82
C. 124
D. 152 Q31,2000
5. A triangular plot measuring 7.5 metres by 12.5

metres by 15 metres is to be fenced. If the posts are to be 2.5 metres apart, how many

posts are needed?

A. 35

B. 17

C. 15

D. 14 Q11,2001

6. The figure below is made up of two semi-circles joined by straight lines.

 

What is the perimeter of the figure? (Take п = 22/7)
A. 18 cm

B. 22 cm

C. 29 cm

D. 51 cm Q29,2001

7. A rectangular plot measuring 46 m by 38 m is to be fenced all round. If three strands of wire are to be used, what would be the total length of wire required in metres?
A. 168

B. 252

C. 504

D. 5 244 Q3,2002

8. The length of a rectangle is represented by the expression (2x + 8) cm and its width by the expression (x – 6) cm.

the rectangle?

A. 3 cm

B. 9 cm

C. 26 cm

D. 451/3 cm Q17,2002

9. Pupils in a school prepared a circular flower garden of diameter 28m. They dug holes each 4m apart along the circumference for planting flowers.

How many holes were dug? (Take π = ) A.154
B.88 C.11
D.22 Q33,2003

10. The figure below represents a vegetable garden bounded by two semi-circles, 5 m apart. The diameter of the larger semi-circle is 30 m.

What is the perimeter of the garden? (Take π = 3.14)

A. 78.50 m

B. 88.50 m

C. 83.50 m

D. 96.35 m Q22,2004

 

If the perimeter is 58 cm, what is the actual length
of

5m 5m

11.A square of side 2 cm is cut from each corner of a rectangular paper measuring 8 cm by 12 cm. Which one of the following statements is true?

13. The figure below represents a plot of land bounded by three straight edges and a semi-circle. Three strands of wire are used to fence the plot.

A. The perimeter of the remaining paper is greater than the perimeter of the rectangular paper by

150 m

150 m

16 cm.

B. The perimeter of the remaining paper is less than
the perimeter of the rectangular paper by 16 cm.

C. The perimeter of the rectangular paper is

reduced by 8 cm.

D. The perimeter of the remaining paper is equal
to

140 m

What is the length, in metres, of the wire used? (Take π = 22/7)
A 660

B 1 980

C 2 640

D 24 420 Q46 ,2007

the perimeter of the rectangular paper.

Q34, 2005

 

12. A rectangular plot of land measures 40m by 30m. There is a wall on one of the longer sides. Four strands of wire are to be used to fence the three
remaining sides of the plot. What length of wire is required?

A. 4 800 m

B. 560 m

C. 400 m

D. 100 m Q11,2006

14. A circular plot was fenced by two equal strands of wire whose total length was 440 m. What was the radius of the plot ? (Take π = 22/7)
A 17 1/2 m
B 35 m
C 70 m
D 140m Q37, 2008
15. The perimeter of a rectangular plot of land is 280

metres. The width of the plot is 60 metres. What is the length of the plot?
A. 70 m

B. 80 m

C. 110 m

D. 160 m Q12,2010

Area of triangles,quadrilaterals, circles, combined shapes and boarders
16. In the figure below, angle BAF is a right angle. Line CB ii parallel to EF and CB = EF =7cm. Line BA = 4cm and AF = 3cm. EDC is a semi-circle of diameter 5 cm.

What is the area of the figure in square centimeters? (Taken; = 3.14)
A. 50.8125
B. 56.8125
C. 60.6250
D. 80:2500 Q42,2000
17. A plot of land is in the shape of a right angled triangle. The length of the longest side measures
26 metres while one of the shorter sides measures
10 metres. What is the area of the plot in square metres?
A. 60
B. 120
C. 130
D. 240 Q45,2001
18. A plot of land is made up of a semi-circle and a rectangle measures 20m by 5m. what is the area of the plot?

(Take π = ) A.122m2 B.177m2 C.254m2
D.408m Q16, 2003

19. The two parallel sides of a trapezium measure 16cm and 12cm. the perpendicular distance between the parallel sides is 8cm What is the area of the trapezium?

A. 2cm2 B.768cm2 C.224cm2
D.160cm2 Q24,2003

20. The diagram below represents triangle EFG in which line FG = 15cm line EG = 17cm and angle EGF
= 90°?

 

E

 

 

 

 

F 15cm G

 

What is the area of the triangle?

A.60 cm2 B.68cm2 C.120cm2
D.127.5cm2 Q32,2003

21. The figure below shows a rectangular lawn ABCD in which AB = 12 m and AC = 15 m.

 

 

 

What is the area of the lawn? A. 180 m2
B. 108 m2

C. 54 m2

D. 36 m2 Q19, 2004

22. The figure below represents a quarter of a circle centre O. The radius of the circle is 7 cm.

 

 

 

 

 

What is the area of the shaded part? (Take п = 22/7 ) A. 24.5 cm2
B. 14 cm2

C. 28.5 cm2

D. 63 cm2 Q46,2004

23. The figure below is a trapezium. Lines HG = 11cm, GF = 5 cm, EF = 15 cm and HE = 3 cm. Line EF is parallel to HG and Angle FEH = angle EHG = 90⁰.

What is the area of the figure?

A. 78 cm2

B. 39 cm2

C. 65 cm2

D. 75 cm2 Q23,2005

24. The figure below represents a table mat made up of

a rectangle and four semi – circles. The rectangle measures 14 cm y 7 cm.

 

 

 

 

 

What is the area of the table mat? ( Take π = 22/7 )

A. 192 ½ cm2

B. 868 cm2

C. 290 ½ cm2

D. 194 ¼ cm2

Q43,2005

25. The figure shown below, is formed by two right- angled triangles ABD and BCD.

 

What is the area of the triangle BCD?

C 160 2/7

D 28 2/7 Q14,2007

28. The diagram below represents a flower garden.

10 m
What is the area of the flower garden in m2?

A. 300 cm2 A 36
B. 180 cm2 B 60
C. 84 cm2 C 65
D. 150 cm2 Q46,2005 D 120

26.A flower garden is made up of a semicircle of

diameter 14 m, a rectangle measuring 20 metres long and 14 metres wide and a quarter of a circle of radius 14 m.
What is the area of the flower garden in m2? (Take = 22/7 )
A. 742

B. 665

C. 511

D. 395½ Q46,2006

27.A lawn is in the form of a rectangle and two semicircles.

The rectangle is 22 m long and 6 m wide. The widths of the rectangle are also the diameters of the semicircles.
What is the area of the lawn in m2? (Take π = 22/7). A 2451/7
B 188 4/7

Q24, 2007

29. The diagram below represents a door which was painted on the outside.

 

 

 

m

 

 

What was the area painted, in square metres?

A 1.17

B 2.16

C 2.34

D 2.52 Q25, 2007

30. In a trapezium, the two parallel sides are 6 cm and 8 cm

long. The perpendicular distance between the parallel sides is 4 cm. What is the area of the trapezium?

A 24 cm2
B 28 cm2
C 32 cm2
D 56 cm2 Q16, 2008

31. The shaded figure below was obtained from a rectangular piece of paper from which a semicircle of diameter 14cm was removed and another semicircle of diameter 7 cm added.

 

What is the area of the shaded figure? (Take π = 22/7)
A 2291/4 cm2 B 3061/4 cm2 C 1521/4 cm2
D 1133/4 cm2 Q47 , 2008

32. What is the area of a square garden whose perimeter is 116 metres?

A. 29 m2

B. 58 m2

C. 841 m2

D. 3 364 m2 Q12, 2009

33 The figure below represents a vegetable garden consisting of a square and four semicircles each of

 

 

 

 

 

 

What is the area of the garden in square metres? (Take π = 22/7)
A. 69.6

B. 225

C. 252.72

D. 355.88 Q37, 2009

34.. In triangle PQR below, PQ = 8 cm, PM = MQ and
PR = RQ = 5cm.

 

What is the area of triangle PQR? A. 7 1/2 cm2
B. 6 cm2

C. 12 1/2 cm2

D. 12 cm2 Q43,2009

rectangle 25 cm long and 12 cm wide has the

same area as a triangle whose height is 10 cm.
What

is the length of the base of the triangle?

A. 15 cm

B. 30 cm

C. 60 cm

D. 300 cm Q32, 2010

36. The height of an isosceles triangle is 4 cm. Each of the two equal sides measures 5 cm. What is the area of the triangle?

A. 6 cm2

B. 12 cm2

C. 15 cm2

D. 24 cm2 Q38,2010

30. The perimeter of a rectangle is 24 cm. The length of the rectangle is 2 cm more than the width. What is the area of the rectangle?
A. 15 cm2

B. 20 cm2

C. 35 cm2

D. 143 cm2 Q41, 2010

WEIGHT,MASS,VOLUME
Surface area of cuboids ,cylinders, and triangular prisms
1. A cylinder which is open at one end has a radius of
6.3 cm and a height of 25 cm. What is the surface area of the cylinder in square centimeters?
{Take n = 22/7)
A. 1114.74 B. 1239.48
C. 3118.50 D. 619.74 Q17,2000
2. A closed cylindrical tank has a radius of 1.05 m and a height of 2 m. What is the surface area of the tank?

(Take π = 22/7)

A. 20.13 m2

B. 16.665 m2

C. 13.2 m2

D. 6.93 m2 Q38,2001

3. A closed cylindrical container has a radius of

1.4 cm and a height of 4 cm. What is its surface area in cm2? (Take π = 22/7 )
A. 47.52

B. 4.136

C. 24.64

D. 20.68 Q37,2002

 

4. An open cylinder has a radius of 3 cm and a height of 10 cm. What is the surface area?

(Take π = ) A.385cm2
A.220 cm2

C.258 1⁄2 cm2

D.297 cm2 Q41 ,2003

5. The area of the curved surface of a cylinder is 6160cm2. The height of the cylinder is 10 cm.
What is the radius of the cylinder in centimetres? (Take п = 22/7)
A. 98

B. 14

C. 196

D. 968 Q31,2004

6. The base of a closed cuboid measures 4 cm by 5 cm

and the height is 7 cm. The base and the top parts of the cuboid are painted. What is the total surface area of the parts which are not painted?

A. 166 cm2

B. 126 cm2

C. 63 cm2

D. 40 cm2 Q38, 2005

7. An open cylindrical tin of diameter 14 cm and

height 21 cm was painted on the outside. What was the area painted? (Take π = 22/7 )
A. 3 234 cm2

B. 2 464 cm2

C. 1 232 cm2

D. 1 078 cm2 Q34,2006

8. The volume of an open rectangular tank is 24.3 m3. The tank has a square base. The height of the tank is 2.7 metres. What is the surface area of the tank in square metres?

A 32.4
B 41.4
C 50.4
D 178.2 Q49,2007

9. An open cylindrical tin has a diameter of 14cm and a height of 10cm. What is the surface area of the tin
in

cm2? (Take π = 22/7) A. 1 540
B. 1 496

C. 748

D. 594 Q26,2008

10. The figure below represents a half of a cylindrical piece of wood of diameter 28 cm and a length of 30 cm.

 

What is the surface area of the solid in cm2? (Take π = 22/7)
A 4096

B. 2776

C. 2468

D. 1936 Q48,2010

Volume of cubes, cuboids and cylinders

11. A cylinder has a volume of 550 cm3. If the height of the cylinder is 7 cm, what is its diameter?

(Take π = 22/7)

A. 50 cm

B. 25 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 5 cm Q21,2002

12. A cylindrical block has a diameter of 14cm and a height of 10cm while, a rectangular block measures 15cm by 10cm by 5cm. What is the difference in their volumes?

(Take π = ) A.310cm3 B.790cm3
C.2 290cm3

D.5 410cm3 Q37,2003

13. One cuboid measures 2 m by 4 m by 3 m. Another cuboid measures 10 cm by 8 cm by 5 cm.
What is the difference in their volumes in cubic metres?
A. 23.6
B. 23.96
C. 23.996
D. 23.9996 Q44, 2004
14. What is the volume, in cm3, of a cylinder whose
diameter is 14 cm and height 10 cm? (Take π = 22/7) A. 6 160
B. 1 540
C. 748
D. 440 Q24,2006

15. What is the volume of a cylindrical tank of diameter 5 m and height 6 m? (Take π = 22/7).
A. 471 3/7 m3 B . 133 4/7 m3 C . 117 6/7 m3 D 94 2/7 m3

C 50
D 60 Q41,2007
17. A cylindrical solid of height 20 cm and radius 7 cm is cut into two equal parts along the diameter. What is the volume of each part in cm3? (Take π =
22/7)

A 3 080
B 440
C 1 540
D 385 Q33,2007
18. A rectangular container is 80 cm long, 50 cm wide and 40 cm high. The container is filled with water to a level 30 cm high. What is the volume of the empty space in the container?

A. 180 000 cm3

B. 160 000 cm3

C. 120 000 cm3

D. 40 000 cm3 Q29, 2009

19. How many blocks can he used to make the pile shown in the diagram below?

A. 63

B. 60

C. 54

D. 36

Q5, 2007
16. How many more cubes are needed to fill the box below?

 

 

A 10
B 22

Capacity of cubes,cuboids and cylinder
20. Boxes measuring 10cm by 6cm by 4 cm were to be packed in a carton measuring 1.5m by 1m by 0.4m. How many boxes were needed to fill the carton?
A. 25000 B. 2500
C. 250 D. 25 Q16,2000
21. A family consumes 6 litres of milk every day. How

many litres altogether did the family consume in the months of March, April and May?

A. 540 l

B. 546 l

C. 552 l

D. 558 l Q33,2002

22. One hundred and twenty litres of juice is packed in two decilitre packets. How many packets are needed?
A. 60

B. 600

C. 6000

D. 60000 Q15,2004

23. A sales lady had 2 240 liters of juice which she packed in 500 ml and 250 ml packets. Three – quarters of the juice was packed in 500 ml packets and the rest in 250 ml packets. What was the total number of packets used?

A. 56

B. 560

C. 5600

D. 56000 Q40,2009

Relationship between capacity and volume

24..A rectangular water tank is 6 metres long, 4 metres wide and 3 metres high. How many litres of water does the tank hold when full?
A. 721

B. 7,200/
C. 72,000/
D. 72,000,000/ Q3,2000
25. A shopkeeper bought 10 cartons of milk. A carton had 72 packets each of 500 ml.
How many litres of milk were bought by the shopkeeper?
A. 360 000 l

B. 36 000 l

C. 3 600 l

D. 360 l Q7,2001

26. A rectangular tank is filled with 6 000 litres of water. The base area of the tank is 30 000 square centimetres. What is the height of the tank in metres?

A. 0.2

B. 2

C. 20

D. 200 Q31,2001

27. A circular tank of radius 1.4 metres and height 2 metres is full of water. How much water, in litres, is in the tank?
(Take п = 22/7) A. 17 600
B. 12 320

C. 6 160

D. 12.32 Q44,2001

 

28. A cylindrical tank of diameter 1.4 m and a height of

1.6 m is 3/4 full of water. How many more litres are needed to fill it?

K.C.P.E REVISION 32

(Take п = 22/7) A. 2 464 l
B. 1 848 l

C. 1 760 l

D. 616 l Q42,2002

29. A rectangular container measures 75cm by 50 cm by 1m. What is the capacity of the container in litres?

A.3750 l

B.375 l

C.37.5 l

D.3.75 l Q13, 2003

30. A container of volume 1 cubic metre is full of juice. The juice is then poured into five-litre containers How many such containers are used?
A. 2
B. 200
C. 2000
D. 200 000 Q12, 2005

31. A rectangular container 45 cm long and 25 cm wide was full of water. After removing 22.5 litres of the water, the level of water became 4 cm high. What was the height of the container?

A. 24 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 16 cm

D. 6 cm Q24, 2005

32.A cylindrical container has an internal radius of 7 cm and a height of 5 cm. What is its capacity in litres?
(Take π = 22/7) A 0.77
B 7.7

C 77

D 770 Q27, 2007

33. What is the capacity of a container which measures1.5 m

by 1.0 m by 0.5 m in litres? A 7 500
B 750

C 75

D 7.5 Q9, 2008

34. A rectangular tank whose base measures 1.2 m by 80 cm contains water to a height of 1.5 m. How much water, in litres, is in the tank?

A. 14.4

B. 144

C. 1 440

D. 14 400 Q36,2008

35. A cylindrical tank of diameter 105 cm contains
litres of water. What is the height of the water in the tank?

(Take π = 22/7)

A. 5.6 cm

B. 56 cm

C. 224 cm

D. 1470 cm. Q49,
2009

36. A rectangular container is 2 m long, 0.9 m wide and 2.5 m high. The container has water to a
height of 1.5 m. How much more water in litres is needed to fill the container?

A. 1 800

B. 2 700

C. 4 500

D. 1 000 Q17, 2010

37. A rectangular water tank whose base is 1.5 m by
0.5 m is to be filled with water using 50 litre

containers. How many such containers will be required to fill the tank to a height of 1 metre?

A. 15

B. 1.5

C. 150

D. 1500 Q45, 2010

 

MONEY
Working out problems involving conversion of units of mass, grams,kg and tones
38. Kiprono hired two Mikokoteni to transport items to his kiosk in the market. Each Mkokoteni carried the following items:
1 bag of onions weighing 141.7 kg;
2 bags of fresh peas each weighing 51.3 kg;
3 bags of green maize each weighing 114.6 kg.

What was the total weight, in kilograms of all the items transported?
A. 1176.2
B. 615.2
C. 307.6
D. 588.1
Q25,2000
39. Three factories Buka, Sakono and Rama produce sugar in one hundred kilogramme bags daily. Buka produces three times as much as Rama. Sakono produced two times as much as Rama.
If Sakono produces 500 bags, how many tonnes altogether do the three factories produce daily?
A. 50

B. 75

C. 150

D. 300 Q25,2001

40. An empty box weighed 2.5 kg. Kombe packed books in the box until the total weight was 9.5 kg. If each book weighed 250 g, how many books were packed?
A. 10

B. 28

C. 38

D. 280 Q4,2002

41. A shopkeeper bought cooking fat in 30 one kilogram packets and 20 five hundred packets. She repacked the fat in packets of 125 grams each. How many packets did she get?

A.400 B.320 C.104
D. 32 Q20,2003

42. A company sold 2.5 tonnes of rice in 2-kg packets. How many packets were sold?
A. 125

B. 1 250

C. 2 500

D. 5 000 Q7,2004

43. A bag of sugar weighed 108.5 kg. Mwangi bought

16 bags. He then removed 0.3 kg of sugar from each

bag. What total weight of sugar remained?

A. 1736 kg

B. 108.2 kg

C. 1731.2 kg

D. 1735.7 kg Q13,2004

44.. A machine packs 250 two – kilogram packets of sugar
while another packs 375 one-kilogram packets each

day. How many tonnes of sugar altogether, do the two

machines pack in five days? A. 0.875
B. 3.125

C. 4.375

D. 6.25 Q33,2005

45.A pick-up whose mass is one tonne when empty was loaded with 40 bags of sugar each weighing 50 kg and three bags of maize each weighing 65 kg. What was the total mass, in tonnes, of the loaded pick-up?
A. 3.195
B. 3.065
C. 3.0
D. 2.195 Q38,2006
46. A lorry has mass of 7 .7 tonnes when loaded with 75 bags of rice. There are 33 bags each with mass of 85 kg and the rest have mass of 45 kg each. What is the mass of the lorry, in tonnes, when empty?

A 3.005

B 4.695

C 4.850

D 12.395 Q34,2007

47. John bought 50 kg of sugar which he packed in packets as follows:
One quarter of the sugar in 125 g packets; One half of the sugar in 250 g packets; The remainder in 500 g packets.
How many packets, altogether, of sugar did he get? A 225

B 100
C 125
D 2 250 Q46,2007
48. A storekeeper donated 5 tonnes of sugar to families in a village. Each family received 2.5 kg of sugar. How many families benefited?
A. 20 000
B. 2 000
C. 200
D. 20 Q3,2009
49. A pickup truck was loaded with 4 cartons of fat and
60 bales of flour. Each carton contained twenty four 250 g packets of fat. The mass of each carton empty carton was 500 g. Each bale contained twelve 2 kg packets of flour. What is the total load, in tonnes

A. 1466

B. 146.6

C. 14.66

D. 1.466 Q26,2010

Profit and mass
50. Florence brought 18 bags of fruits at sh.300 per bag. She spent sh.700 on transport. The fruits in two bags got spoilt and sold the rest at sh.520 per bag. How much profit did she make?

A.Sh.8 320

B..sh.3 260

C.sh.2 920

D.sh.2 220 Q4,2003

51. Mula sold an item for sh 9 900 and made a loss of 10%. What was the cost price of the item?

A. sh 11 000

B. sh 9 910

C. sh 9 000

D. sh 8 910 Q18,2006

52. A shopkeeper spent sh 880 to buy 16 plates and then sold them making a profit of 20%. For how much did the shopkeeper sell each plate?
A sh 44
B sh 55
C. sh 66
D. sh 1 056 Q15,2008
53. If a shopkeeper sells a basin for sh 72, he would make a loss of 10%. At what price must he sell the basin so that he makes a profit of 20%?
A. sh 96

B. sh 86.40

C. sh 80

D. sh 79.20 Q16, 2009

 

Percentage profit and loss
54. A fruit vendor spent sh. 160 to buy 28 bananas, 60 tomatoes and 14 oranges. He paid sh. 40 for transport. During the transportation, 9 tomatoes and 1 banana got spoilt. He then sold the remaining fruits as follows: 1 banana for sh. 3 3 tomatoes for sh. 5 1 orange for sh. 6

What was the percentage profit? A. 56%%’
B. 34%
C. 25%
D. 20% Q37,2000
55. Kantai bought 200 chicken whose average weight was 1.5 kg. The buying price per kilogram was
sh. 150. He then sold each chicken for sh. 250. What percentage profit, to the nearest whole number, did he make?
A. 10%

B. 11%

C. 67%

D. 90% Q41,2001

56.A shopkeeper bought 5 trays of eggs at sh 120 per tray. Ten eggs broke and she sold the rest at sh 6 per egg.

If a tray holds 30 eggs, what percentage profit did she make?

A. 50%

B. 40%

C. 28 4/7%

D. 240% Q41, 2004

57. Mambo took 30 minutes to cycle from home to the market at an average speed of 5 metres per second. After staying at the market for 20 minutes, he cycled back and took 25 minutes to reach home.

What was the average speed, in metres per second,
for the whole journey?

A. 5 5/11 metres per second

B. 4 metres per second

C. 2 metres per second

D. 6 metres per second Q45, 2004

58. A shopkeeper bought 30 eggs. He then sold each egg at sh 6, making a profit of 20%. How much had he paid for the eggs?

A. sh 144

B. sh 150

C. sh 180

D. sh 216 Q5,2005

K.C.P.E REVISION 36

59. There is a 25% loss when an article is sold at

sh 225. At what price should it be sold in order to make a profit of 5%?
A sh 315.00

B sh 300.00

C sh 295.31

D sh 236.25 Q39,2007

60. Kamau bought a piece of land for 2 million shillings. He subdivided it into 25 plots of equal area. He then sold all the plots and made a 20% profit. What was the selling price for each plot?
A. sh 400 000
B. sh 96 000
C. sh 80 000
D. sh 16 000 Q27,2010

Bills
61. Wangui bought the following items from a shop; 2kg cooking fat @ sh. 100 2 loaves of bread @ sh.20 2kg packet of unga for sh. 55; 1/2 kg tea leaves for sh. 100
What balance did she receive from the shopkeeper if she gave a sh. 500 note?
A. Sh. 395
B. Sh. 100
C. Sh. 225
D. Sh. 105 Q26,2000
62. Atieno bought

2 kg meat @ sh. 135,

1 kg sugar for sh. 48, 3 kg rice @ sh. 42 and 1/2 kg salt for sh. 12.
She paid for the items with a sh. 500 note. What balance did she get?
A. sh. 456
B. sh. 263
C. sh. 50

D. sh. 44 Q37,2001
63. Peter bought the following items from a shop:

3 rolls of toilet paper @ sh 17

3/4 of salt @ sh 30 per kg

2 kg packet of rice for sh 70 2 bottles of juice @ sh 70
What balance did he receive if he paid for the items using a sh 500 note?
A. sh 313.00

B. sh 283.50

C. sh 216.50

D. sh 146.50 Q7,2002
64. Wasilwa bought the following items from a shop:
6kg of sugar @ sh 45∙00 1⁄2 kg of tea for sh 90∙00 3 kg of rice @ sh 30∙00
2 kg of cooking fat @ sh 70∙00

If he used a one thousand shillings note to pay for the items, what balance should he receive?
A. sh 410

B. sh 455

C. sh 590

D.sh 765 Q5, 2003

65. Musa bought the following items from a kiosk:

3 kg of tomatoes @ sh 25

1/2 kg of onions @ sh 30

2 kg packet of maize flour for sh 38

1/2 kg of sugar @ sh 44

He paid for the items using a sh 200 note. How much balance did he get?

A. sh 50

B. sh 150

C. sh 63

D. sh 12 Q16, 2004

shopkeeper bought sodas as follows:

Two crates of 300 ml @ sh 415 Three crates of 500 ml @ sh 563 Five crates of one litre @ sh 415.

He then spent sh 50 on transport.

If he had five thousand shillings, how much money did he remain with?
A. sh 356

B. sh 406

C. sh 3 557

D. sh 4 644 Q48, 2004

 

67. Katua bought the following items from a kiosk:

2kg of rice for sh 152 1 ½ of meat @ sh 160
2 loaves of bread @ sh 23

 

What balance did he receive if he paid for the items using a sh 1000 note?
A. sh 438

B. sh 562

C. sh 410

D. sh 665 Q8,2005

68. Mukami had 135 two hundred shillings notes which

she changed as follows:

sh 21 000 into one thousand shillings notes sh 3 000 into five hundred shillings notes
sh 2 000 into one hundred shillings notes and

the remaining amount of money into fifty shillings notes.
How many notes did she get altogether?

A. 67

B. 54

C. 47

D. 20 Q14,2006

69. Samira bought the following items: Five half-litre packets of milk @ sh 30 Two crates of soda @ sh 320
Twenty five loaves of bread @ sh 23 A bottle of water for sh 25
If she had sh 2000, how much money did she remain with?
A. sh 1 602

B. sh 1 390

C. sh 635

D. sh 610 Q28,2006

 

70. Mariam bought the following items:

3 kg flour @ sh 55

2 kg packet of sugar for sh 115 2 bars of soap @ sh 42
3 litres of milk @ sh 25

1 1/2 litres of kerosene @ sh 45

If she gave the shopkeeper a sh 1 000 note, how much balance did she receive?

A sh 378.50

B sh 493.50

C sh 718.00

D sh 506.50 Q7,2007

71. Mwende bought the following items to make a dress:

5 players each took ugali with chicken 3 players each took chips with fish
The remaining players each took rice with beef

Musa gave a one-thousand shilling note to pay for the lunch of all the players.

What balance did he get?

A. sh 55

B. sh 115

2 1/2m of dress material @ sh 275 6 buttons @ sh 7.50 Three reels of thread for sh 70
She also paid sh 450 for making the dress. If she had sh 1 500, how much money was she left with?
A sh 247.50

B sh 1 252.50

C sh 107.50

D sh 697.50 Q39, 2008

 

72. A team of eleven players took lunch in a hotel, which offered food prices as shown in the table below.

C. sh 310

D. sh 885 Q30,2009

 

73. Teckla bought the following items from a shop.

3 kg of sugar @ sh 68

250 g of tea leaves for sh 85 2 bars of soap @ sh 38
1 kg of cooking fat for sh 109 2 kg parket of rice for sh 149.

Teckla paid for the items using a sh 1 000 note. How much balance did she receive?
A. sh 228

B. sh 377

C. sh 551

D. sh 623 Q6,2010

Commissions and percentages commissions

74. A salesperson earns a salary of sh. 2000 plus a 5% commission on sales above sh. 10, 000. In one month the Salesperson sold goods worth sh. 25, 000. How much money did the salesperson receive that month?
A. sh.3250
B. sh. 2750
C. sh.2500 Q43,2000
75. A dealer paid sh. 15 000 to an agent as commission for the sale of a car. The commission was 2% of the price.
How much money did the dealer remain with from the sale of the car?

 

 

Q26,2001

76. In one month an agent sold 5 plots at sh 250 000.
She

charged a 5% commission for the sale of plots and paid 15% of the commission to her workers.
How much money did she remain with? A. sh 53 125
B. sh 9 375

C. sh 6 250

D. sh 10 625 Q25,2002

77. A sales lady earns a basic salary of sh. 10 000, she is also paid a commission. In one month she sold items worth sh. 40 000 and earned a total of sh. 4 900. What was the commission?

A.21⁄4%

B. 3%

C.16 1⁄3%

D.221⁄2 % Q29,2003

78. A saleswoman was paid a monthly salary of sh 9000. She was also paid a commission of 10% for all the goods she sold above sh 10 000. In one month she sold goods worth sh 25 000.

What did she earn at the end of that month? A. sh 11 500
B. sh 12 500

C. sh 10 500

D. sh 1 500 Q26, 2004

79. A salesman is paid a salary of sh 1500 per month

plus a commission of 2 1/2% on the sale of goods above sh 10 000. In one month he was paid a total of sh 1 800. How much was the sale of the goods?

A. sh 300

B. sh 12 000

C. sh 22 000

D. sh 82 000 Q35 ,2005

80.. Asha and Musa are salespersons employed by two different companies. Asha’s company pays her a monthly salary of sh 1 500 and a 2½% commission on goods she sells above sh 10 000.

Musa’s company only gives him a 6% commission on all goods he sells.
On a certain month Asha and Musa each sold goods worth sh 40 000. How much more money was Musa paid than Asha?
A. sh 2 400

B. sh 2 250

C. sh 900

D. sh 150 Q36,2006

81. A saleslady earns a salary of sh 25 000 per month. She also gets a 4% commission on goods sold above a total of sh 150 000. In one month she sold goods worth

sh 350 000. How much money altogether did she earn that month?
A. sh 8 000

B. sh 39 000

C. sh 31 000

D. sh 33 000
Q13,2008

82. Sera sells goods for a company. She is paid a salary of sh 84 000 per month plus a commission of 20% for the sale of goods worth above sh 10 000. In one month her total earnings were sh 150 000. What was the value of the goods she sold?

A. sh 760 000

B. sh 340 000

C. sh 330 000

D. sh 244 000
Q33,2009

 

83. A salesman is paid a salary of sh 5 000 per month. He is also paid a 2.5% commission on the sales above sh 100 000.

If the salesman sold goods worth sh 500 000 in a certain month. What was his total earnings?

A sh 10 000

B. sh 12 500

C. sh 15 000

D. sh 17 500 Q34,2010

Discounts and percentage discounts
84. The price of a radio was reduced by sh. 630. This represented a 30% discount. What was the price of the radio after the discount?
A. sh. 441
B. sh. 1470
C. sh. 2100
D. sh. 2730 Q19,2000
85. Ali paid sh. 3700 for a radio after getting a discount of 7 1/2%. How much more would he have paid had he been given a discount of 5%?
A. sh. 100

B. sh. 200

C. sh. 3800

D. sh. 4000 Q33,2001

 

86. Olwena bought goods worth sh 450 from a shop. He gave the shopkeeper a sh 1 000 note and was given a balance of sh 600.
What percentage discount was he allowed for the goods bought?
A. 11 1/9%

B. 12 1/2%

C. 50%

D. 88 8/9% Q39,2002

87. Amina paid sh. 24 000 for a TV set after getting a 20% discount. What was the marked price of the TV set?

A.Sh. 30 000

B.Sh. 28 800

C.Sh. 19200

D.Sh. 20 000 Q26,2003

88. The marked price of an article was sh 300. Ali paid sh 260 for the article after being given a discount. What percentage discount did he get?

A. 862/3%

B. 40%

C. 15 5/ %

D. 13 1/3% Q21,2004.

89. The marked price of a blouse was sh. 750. Halima bought five such blouses after being given a 10% discount. How much did she pay for the five blouses?

A. sh 3675

B. sh 675

C. sh 3375

D. sh 3700 Q7,2005

65. Onyango paid sh 950 for an item after getting a

discount of sh 50. What percentage discount did he get?

A. 5%

B. 55/9%

C. 55/19%

D. 95% Q26,2006

90.. Karim paid sh 950 for an item after getting a discount of 5%. What would have been the percentage discount, if Karim had paid sh 925 for the item?

blouse,what was the marked price for the shirt? A sh 324
B sh 360

C sh 396

D sh 400 Q45,2008

92. Matu paid sh 7 600 for a radio after getting a 5%, discount on the marked price. How much would he have paid if he had been given a 15% discount?

A. sh 8 000

B. sh 6 800

C. sh 6 480

D. sh 6 460 Q25,2009

 

93. Tumbo paid sh 10 200 for a cupboard after getting a discount of 15%. What was the marked price of thecupboard?
A. sh 1 530

B. sh 8 670

C. sh 11730

D. sh 12 000 Q15,2010

Hire purchase
94. The hire purchase terms of a cupboard is a deposit of sh. 4 400 and six monthly installments of sh. 900

A 2 12/

19%

each. The hire purchase is 175% of the cost price while the cash price is 25% more than the cost price.

B 7 1/2%

C 7 17/19%

What is the cash price of the cupboard? A.Sh. 9 800

D 8 4/

% Q44,2007

37
91. Juma bought a blouse and a shirt from a shop which allowed a 10% discount on the marked price of each item.
He paid a total of sh 630, If he paid sh 270 for the

B.Sh. 5 600

C.Sh. 7 840

D.Sh. 7 000 Q49,3003

95. The cash price of a tractor is 1.8 million shillings. Rotich bought it on hire purchase terms. The total amount he paid was 30% more than the cash price.
He paid a deposit of

sh 660 000 and the remainder in 24 equal monthly instalments. How much was each instalment?
A. sh 70 000

B. sh 97 500

C. sh 47 500

D. sh 25 000 Q44,2004

 

96. The hire purchase price for a wall cabinet is 25% more than the cash price. Kalulu bought the cabinet on hire purchase terms by paying a de posit of Sh 13 200 and the remaining amount in 12 equal monthly instalments. If the cash price was sh 24 000, how much was each

monthly instalment?

A. sh 400

B. sh 900

C. sh 1 400

D. sh 2 500 Q45,2006

97. The hire purchase price of a cupboard was 25% more than the marked price. Karani bought the cupboard on hire purchase terms.

He paid a deposit of sh 2 000 and eight equal monthly installments of sh 650. What was the marked price of the cupboard?

A sh 4 160

B sh 5 400

C sh 5 760

D sh 9 000 Q32,2007

98. Mary bought a T.V set on higher purchase terms. She paid a deposit of sh. 800 and 15 equal monthly instalments of sh. 700 each. The higher purchase price was 25% higher than the cash price. Amina bought the same type of T.V set on cash. How much more than Amina did Mary pay for the T.V set?

A. sh. 2 260

B. sh. 2 825

C. sh. 9 040

D. sh. 11 300
Q42,2009.

99. The cash price of a radio was sh 4 500. The hire purchase price of the radio was 60% more than the cash price. Muya bought the radio on hire purchase terms. He paid a deposit and 12 equal monthly instalments of sh 540 each. How much did he pay as deposit?

A. sh 720

B. sh 6 480

C. sh 6 660

D. sh 7 200 Q31,2010

100. The cash price of a bed is sh. 11 700. The hire purchase price is 20% more than the cash price. Mbugua bought a bed on hire purchase terms. He paid a deposit of sh. 2808 and 12 equal monthly installments. How much was each monthly installment?
A. sh. 1404
B. sh 1170
C. sh 936
D. sh. 546 Q30,2000
101. Mwamburi bought a T.V. set on hire purchase terms. He paid a deposit of sh. 2000. The remaining amount was paid in 5 equal monthly instalments. He paid a total of sh. 9200. How much was each monthly instalment?

A. sh. 2240

B. sh. 1840

C. sh. 1440

D. sh. 400 Q13,2001

102. Kazungu bought a radio on hire purchase terms. He paid a deposit of sh 900 and 9 equal monthly

instalments of sh 300. The hire purchase price was 20% more than the marked price.
What was the marked price of the radio?

A. sh 720

B. sh 2 880

C. sh 3 000

D. sh 3 600 Q16,2002

 

Simple interest
103.

Q48,2000

104. Asha deposited sh. 4800 in a bank which paid interest at the rate of 12% p.a. How much did she have in the bank after six months?

A. sh. 288

B. sh. 5088

C. sh. 5376

D. sh. 8256 Q28,2002

105. Sotsi borrowed sh 20 000 from a money lender at a
simple interest rate of 5% per month. How much did he pay back altogether at the end of one year?

A. Sh 32 000

B. Sh 21 000

C. Sh 20 060

D. Sh 12 000 Q7 ,2006

106. Janet borrowed some money at a simple interest of 12% p.a. After 18 months, she had paid a total interest of sh 5 400. How much money had she paid altogether?

A sh 35 400

B sh 30 000

C sh 24 600

D sh 7 900 Q50,2007

107. Maloba deposited sh 8 000 in a financial institution that paid simple interest. At the end of 3 years this money had amounted to sh 9 200. At what rate per annum was the simple interest awarded?

A. 5 %

B. 15 %

C. 38 1/2 %

D. 4 8/23 % Q7,2009

108. Irimu deposited sh 10 000 in a financial institution that offered simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum. Ndege deposited sh 10 000 in a bank that offered compound interest at the rate of 5% per annum. How much more interest had Ndege’s money earned than Irimu’s after 2 years?

A. sh 25

B. sh 1 000

C. sh 1 025

D. sh 2 025 Q29,2010

Compound interest
109. Maria agreed to loan Luvisia sh 10 000 at a compound interest of 15% per annum. How much money altogether did Luvisia pay Maria after two years?
A. sh 13 225
B. sh 13 000
C. sh 11 500
D. sh 3 225 Q8,2002

110. Jane deposited sh. 1 000 in a bank that paid compound interest at the rate of 12% p.a. How much money was in her account at the end of two years?

A.Sh. 2 508.80

B. sh. 2 480

C.sh. 2 240

D.sh. 508. Q34,2003

111. Asha was given a loan of sh 48 000. She repaid the loan after two years with compound interest at the rate of 25% p.a.

How much money did she pay altogether? A. sh 60 000
B. sh 63 000

C. sh 72 000

D. sh 75 000 Q23,2004

 

112. Waithera borrowed sh 10 000 for a period of two years. She was charged compound interest at the rate of 15% per year. How much interest did she pay altogether?

A. sh. 1 500

B. sh. 3 000

C sh. 3 225

D. sh . 1 725 Q42,2005

113. Mwasi borrowed sh 50 000 from a bank that charged compound interest at the rate of 25% p.a. How much should he pay the bank at the end of two years?

A. sh78 125

B. sh 75 000

C. sh 62 500

D. sh28 125 Q23,2008

114. Irimu deposited sh 10 000 in a financial institution

that offered simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum. Ndege deposited sh 10 000 in a bank that offered compound interest at the rate of 5% per annum. How much more interest had Ndege’s money earned than Irimu’s after 2 years?

A. sh 25

B. sh 1 000

C. sh 1 025

D. sh 2 025 Q29,2010

POSTAL CHARGES
Inland and international postal charges

115.

Q46,2000

116. The table below shows the rates for sending letters and post cards through a post office in 1998.

Type of Article Weight Charge

shs. cts.
Letters Not over 20 g

„ 50 g

„ 100 g

„ 250 g

„ 500 g

„ 1kg

„ 2kg 14 00
(Limit of weight 2 17 00
kg) 18 00
28 • 00
46 • 00
75 • 00
110 00
Post cards Each 12 – 00

Amina sent the following letters and post cards: Three letters each weighing 49 g
One letter weighing 150 g Five letters each weighing 800 g
One letter weighing 1.5 kg Q40,2001

 

 

117. The table below shows the cost in shillings of
sending parcels through the post office.

Asif sent one parcel weighing 2 kg to Africa and another weighing 3 kg 600 g to Near East.

How

much did he spend?

A. sh 3075

B. sh 1335 C sh 3030
D. sh 2380

Q18,2004

 

 

 

 

Surface Mail
Type of Article Weight steps East African Zone The rest of Africa Zone Europe, Middle & Near East Australia,

America & Far East
LETTERS Sh cts Sh cts Sh cts Sh cts
Max. weight 2kg
40 00 45 00 50 00 60 00
Up to 20 g 80 00 90 00 51 00 130 00
Over 20 g to 100 g
135
00 160 00 52 00 131 00
Over 100 g to 250 136 00 161 00 53 00 132 00
g 400 00 162 00 54 00 133 00
Over 250 g to 500 g 650 00 760 00 860 00 1 095 00
Over 500 g to 1k g
Over 1k g to2 k
g
POSTCARDS Standard size 20 00 20 00 25 00 35 00
Large size 40 00 45 00 50 00 70 00

118. The table below shows the rates of sending letters and postcards through a post office in year 2004.

Makena sent the following letters and postcards: Two letters each weighing 21 g; one to
Tanzania and another to Australia. Four letters each weighing 280 g;
one to Europe, two to America and one to Nigeria. Three large postcards; one to Australia, one to Far East and one to America.
How much did she pay for postage altogether?

A sh 1 840.00

B sh 1 730.00

C sh 1 820.00

How much money did he pay at the post office altogether?

A. Sh. 736

B.sh. 27 500

C.sh. 28 236

D.sh. 28 117

Money and postal orders
120.The table below shows the postal rates for sending a money order.

D sh 1 430.00

Q48,2007

119.The table below shows the postal rates for sending money order

 

VALUE OF ORDER IN
sh COMMISSION
Not exceeding 500 Sh. 42
501-1 000 Sh. 114
1 001-3 000 Sh. 174
3 001-5 000 Sh. 209
5 001-10 000 Sh. 295
10 001-20 000 Sh. 441
20 001-30 000 Sh. 617

Mambo sent two money orders, one for sh. 17 500 and the other sh. 10 000.

 

 

 

 

School fees for two children in the same school was

sh 9 400 and sh 11 800. The father bought one money order to pay the total amount of fees. How much more would he have spent had he bought two separate money orders for the fees?

A. sh 119

B. sh 146

C. sh 736

D. sh 617 Q20, 2005

121. The following table shows the commission charged

when one buys postal orders.

 

VALUE OF ORDER

(sh) COMMISSION

(sh)
100.00 11.00
200.00 12.00
300.00 23.00
400.00 39.00

Wangeci wanted to send sh 700 by postal orders. Which one of the postal order combinations given below should she buy in order to pay the least commission?
A. sh 400 + sh 300

B. sh 400 + sh 100 + sh 100 + sh 100

C. sh 300 + sh 300 + sh 100

D. sh 200 + sh 200 + sh 200 + sh 100 Q33,
2007

 

Writing telegrams and working out telegram charges
122. The charges for sending an inland telegram were as follows:
The first 10 words or part thereof sh. 10. All extra words sh. 1 each.
A commission of 15% on the total was charged.

What was the cost of sending the following telegram?
GAD KILOVI BOX 200 MALABA COME NAKURU URGENTLY NEKESA
A. sh. 12.65

B. sh. 11.50

C. sh. 10.35

D. sh. 10 Q16,2001

123. The telegram charges were sh 13.50 for the first 10
words. Every additional word was charged sh 2.75.

The total amount was then rounded up to the nearest

fifty cents. Otieno sent the following telegram:

 

PAUL OCHIENG BOX 120 OYUGIS

GO VISIT ATIENO BOARDING SCHOOL KISII THIRD OCTOBER
OTIENO PETER

 

How much did he pay for it? A. sh 14.00
B. sh 16.50

C. sh 27.00

D. sh 27.50 Q48,2002

124. The charges for sending a telegram were as follows:

The first 10 words or less sh 15. Any additional words sh 1. 50 each.

K.C.P.E REVISION 49

Abbreviations and punctuation marks are counted as words.
A tax of 20% is charged on the amount.

The total amount to be paid is rounded off to the

nearest 50 cents. What was the cost of sending the following telegram?
JOHN MLAMA P.O. BOX 360 NYERI GOING TO KISUMU AFTER THE EXAMINATION KOIGI
A. sh 25

B. sh 24

C. sh 28.80

D. sh 29.00 Q30, 2005

TIME AND SPEED
Operations involving units of time

1. A motorist left home at 10:00 am and travelled to Nairobi, a distance of 225 km. He traveled at an average speed of 90 km/h. At what time did he reach Nairobi?

A. 12:30 p.m.
B. 12:50 p.m.
C. 2:30 p.m.
D. 12:30 a.m. Q27,2000
3. A plane left Nairobi at 23 50 hr on Monday and took 1 hr 45 minutes to reach Mombasa where it stopped for 50 minutes. It then left Mombasa and took 40 minutes to reach Zanzibar.At what time in a.m/pm system did it reach Zanzibar?

A. 2.15a.m.
B. 3.05 a.m.
C. 2.15a.m.
D. 3.05p.m.
Q34,2000
4. Oloo slept at 2315h on Sunday and woke up six hours later. On what day and time did he wake up?
A. Sunday 5∙15 am
B. Monday 5∙15 pm
C. Monday 5∙15 am
D. Sunday 5∙15 pm Q10,2003

5. A clock gains 12.5 seconds every hour. If it was set correctly at 8.00 am Sunday, what time will it show when the correct time is 8.00 am on Thursday?

A.8.25 am

B.8.20 am

C.8.05 am

D.8.10 am Q38,2003

6. A bus left Migori town for Nairobi at 19 00 h. It arrived in Nairobi 9 hours later. At what time did the bus arrive in Nairobi?

A. 3.00 p.m.

B. 3.00 a.m.

C. 4.00 p.m.

D. 4.00 a.m. Q33,2004

7. A clock was set on Monday at 8.30 a.m. On Tuesday, the following day, the clock showed
8.45 p.m. when the correct time was 8.30 p.m. How many minutes was the clock gaining in every 24 hours?

A. 10 minutes

B. 7 ½ minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 30 minutes Q37,2005

8. A motorist started on a journey of 250 km at 6.30
a.m. travelling at an average speed of 100 km/h. After travelling for 150 km, the car got a puncture and it took him 30 minutes to change the wheel. He then continued with the rest of the journey at an average speed of 80 km/h. At what time did he reach his destination?

A. 9.15 a.m.

B. 9.45 a.m.

C. 9.30 a.m.

D. 9.55 a.m.

Q40,2005

9. An aeroplane left town F at 22 30 h on Monday. It took 8 ¾ hours to reach town K. When did it reach town K?
A. Tuesday 7.15 a.m.

B. Tuesday 7.15 p.m.

C. Monday 7.15 a.m.

D. Monday 7.15 p.m.
Q22,2006

10. Juma slept at 2130 h. After sleeping for 8 h 45 min he woke up. At what time, in am/pm, did he wake up?
A. 6.15 am
B. 12.15 pm
C. 12.15 am
D. 6.15 pm Q13,2009
11. A small aircraft took 6 hours 30 minutes to travel from Pretoria to Mombasa. It reached Mombasa at 04 00 h on Wednesday. At what time and day did it depart from Pretoria?
A 09 30 h on Wednesday
B 09 30 h on Tuesday
C 21 30 h on Wednesday
D 21 30 h on Tuesday Q23,2007
12. How many days are there between 15th July and 15th September?
A. 60
B. 61
C. 62
D. 63 Q3,2010
13. A cyclist took 15 minutes to travel from his home to town at a speed of 18 km/h. He took 24 minutes to travel back from town to his home. What was his speed, in km/h, from town to his home?

A. 1 4/5

B. 4 1/2

C. 11 1/4

D. 14 8/13 Q42,2010

14.. A watch loses 30 seconds every hour. If the watch was set right on Sunday at 11.30 p.m. What day and time did it show after 10 hours?

A. Monday 9. 25 a.m.

B. Monday 9. 30 a.m.

C. Monday 9. 35 a.m

D. Monday 9. 25 p.m.
Q46,2010

Air flight, Bus Train. Tables involving time fare and distance
15. In the year 2000, February 19th was a Saturday.
What day was March 6th the same year?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday Q14,2000
16. The table below represents arrival and departure times of buses from a company serving Isiolo – Nairobi route

How long does a bus take to travel from Nanyuki to Sagana?

A. 3 h 50 min

B. 3 h 40 min

C. 3 h 20 min

D. 3 h 10 min Q10,2001
17. A motorist covers 3 km in every 13/4 minutes. How many kilometres will he have covered from 8.19
am

to 9.08 am?

A. 28

B. 84

C. 147

D. 2571/4 Q9,2002

16. In a certain leap year, 16th February was Wednesday. What day was 1st May the same year?
A. Saturday

B. Sunday

C. Monday

D. Tuesday Q31,2002

17. The table below shows matatu fares to different towns in shillings.

A teacher and 2 pupils left town E for town L. They stopped at town G and then continued with the journey to town L in another matatu.
If the fare for children is half that of adults, how much did they pay altogether?
A. sh 480

B. sh 320

C. sh 300

D. sh 240 Q44,2002

18. The table below shows Sagana – Nanyuki train fares

for adults.

STATION NANYUKI NARO – MORU KIGA NJO KARATINA SAGANA
NANYUKI —— 20 35 55 70
NARO -MORU 20 —— 20 35 50
KIGANJO 35 20 ——— 20 35
KARATINA 50 35 20 ——— 20
SAGANA 70 50 35 20 ——
The fare for children is half that of adults. Taipei and his two children travelled from Nanyuki to Sagana. On their return journey they first paid the fare to Karatina. They later paid the fare to Nanyuki. How much more money did they spend on travel for their return journey?

A. sh 150

B. sh 140

C. sh 15

D. sh 10 Q22’ 2005

19. The table below shows the second class train fare from station M to P through station N. The pupils paid fare as children.

DESCRIPTION

SECOND CLASS

STATION

FARE ONLY

FARE & BEDDING

ALL INCLUSIVE
M-P
ADULT………. 1 000.00 1 275.00 2 275.00
CHILD……….. 500.00 775.00 1 475.00
M-N
ADULT……… 695.00 970.00 1 570.00
CHILD………. 350.00 625.00 1 045.00

Three teachers accompanied 45 pupils in the train. The pupils paid fare only, from station M to P. Two of the teachers paid all inclusive rate from station M to P. One teacher who alighted at station N paid for fare and

bedding. How much money did they pay altogether?

A sh 25 195

B sh 28 020

C sh 28 325

D sh 50 520 Q
31,2007

20..Musa left home at 11.45 am and took 1 h 20 min to travel to town. After staying in town for one hour, he travelled back home. The time taken to travel to town was twice that taken for the return journey. At what time did he reach home?

A 3.25pm

B 2.45 pm

C 4.45 pm

D 1.45pm Q29,2008

 

21. Murage left town Q at 8.15 am for town R travelling at a speed of 90 km/h, Mwebi left town R at 9.00 am for town Q travelling at a speed of 120 km/h. The two met at a place 180 km away from Q.

What was the distance between towns Q and R?

A. 330 km

B. 150 km

C. 300 km

D. 276 km Q48
,2008

 

22. December the twelfth of 1999 was a Sunday. What day of the week was twelfth April 2000? A Monday
B Tuesday
C Wednesday D Thursday
Q50,2008

23. Below is a bus timetable from town J to town P.

TOWN ARRIVAL TIME DEPARTURE

TIME
J 7.00 a.m.
K 9.30 a.m. 10.00 a.m.
L 11.15 a.m. 11.30 a.m.
M 12.15 p.m. 12.25 p.m.
N 1. 10 p.m. 1.20 p.m.
P 1.50 p.m. 2.00 p.m.

How long did the bus take to travel from town K to town N?
A. 3h 10 min
B. 3 h 20 min
C. 3 h 40 min
D. 8 h 50 min Q11,2010
Conversions involving units of speed
23. A car travelling from town A to town B at an average speed of 80 km/h took 54 minutes. Another car took 40 minutes to travel the same distance. What was the difference in their speeds in km/h?

A. 8
B. 28
C. 36
D. 108 Q48,2001
24. A motorist left town A at 8.15 am for town B, a distance of 330 km. He covered the first 112 km in 1 1/3 hours and stopped for 20 minutes to fuel. He continued with the journey arriving in town B at 11.55am.
What was the average speed for the whole journey?

A. 109 km/h

B. 99 km/h

C. 90 km/h

D. 84 km/h Q45,2002

25. Mambo took 30 minutes to cycle from home to the market at an average speed of 5 metres per second. After staying at the market for 20 minutes, he cycled back and took 25 minutes to reach home.What was the average speed, in metres per second, for the whole journey?

A. 5 5/11 metres per second

B. 4 metres per second

C. 2 metres per second

D. 6 metres per second
Q43,2004

motorist travelling at an average speed of 84 km/h took 2 hours and 30 minutes to travel from town M to town N. She then took 3 hours and 20 minutes to travel back to town M. What was the average speed for the whole journey?

A. 36 km/h

B. 63 km/h

C. 731/2 km/h

D. 72 km/h
Q28,2005

27. In a relay race Obong’o ran 600 m, which is 2∕5 of the race, in 3 minutes. Kyalo took 5 minutes to complete the rest of the race.

What was the average speed for the whole race in m/s?
A. 3

B. 31/8

C. 31/6

D. 31/3 Q39, 2006

28.A motorist driving at 60 km/h was expected to arrive on time in town A, 200 km away. After driving for one hour, the car got a puncture and it took 20 minutes to change the wheel.

At what speed in km/h did he drive after repairing the puncture if he had to arrive at the expected time?

A 105

B 100

C 70

D 52½ Q45, 2007

29. Adhiambo left home and cycled for 11/2 hours at an

average speed of 8 km/h. She rested for 30 minutes and continued with the journey for 2 hours at an average speed of 71/2 km/h.
What was the average speed for the whole journey?

A. 27 km/h

B. 7 5/7 km/h

C. 7 3/4 km/h

D. 6 3/4 km/h Q8,
2009

 

Temperature in degrees celcius(oc)

29. Water gained heat at the rate of 12° C per minute for

5 minutes. It was then allowed to lose heat at 4° C per
minute. If the temperature before heating was 22°
C,

what was its temperature after 81/2 minutes?

A. 46° C

B. 48° C

C. 60° C

D. 68° C Q43.2002

GEOMETRY

Construction of triangles and angles
1. The figure below shows a construction of angle XYS
= 105°.

Which group of points shows the order of construction?
A. Q,P,T,S,R
B. Q, P, R, S, T
C. Q, P,R,T, S
D. Q,P,T,R,S Q24,2000
2. In the figure below, line MN = NR = RM = RQ. NRQ is a straight line and line NP = PQ. Angle NPQ = 68°

What is the size of Angle PQM? A. 56°
B. 116°
C. 86°
D. 98° Q35,2000

3. The diagram below shows three lines which

intersect to form triangle ABC.

What is the value of x? A. 50°
B. 60°

C. 70°

D. 130° Q9,2001

 

4. In the figure below, lines PQ and RS are parallel. Lines EJF and EHG are straight. Lines EJ and EH are equal. Angle FHJ = 35° and angle HGS = 130°

What is the size of angle JFH? A. 80°
B. 50°

C. 45°

D. 15° Q15,2001

6. Triangle ABC, shown below, has been drawn accurately.

 

What is the size of angle CAB? A. 35°
B. 44°

C. 79°

D. 101° Q35,2001

7. In the figure below lines JK and LM are parallel. Line NP is a transversal.

Which of the statements below is NOT always true? What is the size of angle QST?

A. g + e = a + d A. 145°
B. e+ f = c + d B. 130°
C. a + e = 180° C. 110°
D. b = g Q6,2002 D. 160° Q34,2002

8. The diagram below shows part of two sides of triangle RST. Angle SRT = 60°. Complete the diagram to form triangle RST such that RS = 8 cm and ST = 9 cm. Construct the bisector of angle TRS to meet side ST at V.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9. In the figure below PQ = QR = RS. Angle PQR = 40°.

10. The figure below shows lines AE, BF, CG and DH which intersect at point O.

 

 

 

 

 

11. What is the measure of the interior angle XYZ of the quadrilateral WXYZ constructed below?

A. 0°

B. 0°

C.25°

D.20° Q14, 2003

12. In the figure below, line EF is parallel to the line GH. Lines JK and LM intersect at N. Angle NQH = 120° and angle NRF = 160°

What is the size of angle PST?

A. 135°

B. 121°

C. 118°

D. 62° Q6 ,
J M 2004

P R
160 F

15. In triangle EFG line EF = EG, angle EFG = 4X° and angle EGH =5X°.

N

G S Q
G

L

120 H

K

What is the size of angle PNS?

A.100° B.80° C.60°
D.20° Q27, 2003
13.. Construct triangle PQR such that line QR = 8 cm, angle PQR = 45° and angle RPQ = 55°. What is the length of line PQ?
A. 6.8 cm

B. 6.6 cm

C. 13.7cm

D. 9.6 cm
Q28,2003

14. In the figure below lines ST and SR are equal. Angle RPQ = 45° and angle PQR = 76°.

What is the value of angle FEG? A. 20°
B. 80°

C. 100°

D. 120° Q27,
2004

16. Construct the triangle JKL such that JK = JL = 5.5 cm and KL = 7 cm. Draw the bisector of angle KJL to meet line KL at M.

Which one of the following statements is correct from the construction?
A. Triangle JML is an isosceles triangle.

B. Triangle JKL is right angled.

C Line JM is perpendicular to KL.

A.
8.1 cm Measure angle SQR.

What is the size of angle SQR?
B. 10.4 cm A. 63°
C. 4.6 cm B. 114°
D. 3.4 cm C. 117°

Q38,2004

 

18. In the figure below, RPQ is a triangle. Point O is inside

the triangle. Join RO, PO and QO.

What is the size of the obtuse angle POQ? A. 54°
B. 114°

C. 120°

D. 126° Q9,2005
19. In the figure below lines PQ, RQ and SQ have been constructed to meet at Q.

D. 129° Q4, 2006

 

20. In the figure below lines AB, AC, BC and BD are equal. BDF and CDE are straight lines and angle ABD is

 

 

 

 

E
What is the size of angle EDF? A. 30°
B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 75° Q42,2006

21.. The figure below shows angles formed by a pair of

parallel lines and a transversal

In which group below, are each of the angles equal to n?

A. p,g,f

B. p,m,f

C. p,q,f

D. p,h,f Q18,2007

 

22. Which one of the triangles below has two of its sides measuring 5 cm and 7 cm while one of its angles measures 75°?

 

A Triangle KEF. B Triangle JEF. C Triangle HEF.
D Triangle GEF. Q29,2007

 

23. Which two of the following statements are true
about all triangles?

(i) All angles are equal.

(ii) Sum of interior angles is 180°.

(iii) One angle is 90°.

(iv) Sum of exterior angles is 360°.

 

A (i) and (ii)

B (i) and (iii)

C (ii) and (iv)

D (iii) and (iv) Q38,2007

24.. In the figure below, PS is parallel to VU, angle TRS = 75° and angle TUV = 130°.

What is the size of angle RTQ?

A 25°

B 55°

C 50°

D 105° Q7,2008

25. In the figure below, GFB and GHJ are straight lines. Line GF = FH = HJ and angle FGH = 50°.

 

What is the measure of angle EFJ? A 130°
B 75° .

C 80°

D 105° Q31,2008

26. Construct triangle EFG with EF = 6.2 cm, angle FFG
= 60° and angle FEG = 40°. Draw a perpendicular from G to meet line EF at H. What is the measure of line EH?

A 5.4 cm

B 3.5 cm

C 4.1 cm

D 2.1 cm Q34,2008

What is the size of angle EPF? A. 1130
B. 67°

C. 480

D. 200

 

 

 

 

 

Q46,2009

27. on the diagram below EF is parallel to GH and JK is a transversal. Which one of the angles is equal to KRH?

 

A. SRH

B. GRK

C. ESJ

D. JSF Q5,2009

28. On the triangle EFG below, construct the bisector of angle EFG to meet the line EG at M. Construct the bisector of angle FEG to meet the line FG at N. Mark P at the point where the two bisectors intersect.

29. In the figure below, lines EF and GH are parallel. Lines JK and MN are transversals which intersect at V.

Angle MQF = 50° and angle HSK = 30°.

What is the size of angle QVS?

A. 1500

B. 1300

C. 1000

D. 800 Q7,2010

30.. Construct a triangle XYZ in which XY = 7.2 cm, YZ = 5.8 cm and ZX = 6.2 cm.
What is the size of angle XYZ? A. 1250
B. 750

C. 550

D. 500 Q21,2010

61

31. On the line QR given below, construct a triangle PQR such that PQ = PR = 7 cm. Construct a bisector of angle PQR to meet line PR at X.

 

 

What is the size of angle QXR?

A. 780

B. 440

C. 680

D. 1020 Q49,210

 

Perpendicular lines (from a point to a line)
32. Which one of the following diagrams shows arcs that lead to the construction of a perpendicular from point P to line XY?

Q27,2001

 

33. In the triangle KLM drawn below, construct the

perpendicular bisector of line KM to cut line KM at N and line KL at P.

What is the size of the acute angle KPN? A. 145°
B. 90°

C. 55°

D. 35° Q14,2005

34. On the figure below, draw perpendicular bisectors of lines PQ and QR to meet at a point X.

 

 

What is the length of QX?

A. 5-2 cm B 4.4 cm C 7.0 cm
D 5.5 cm Q10,2008

35. On the diagram below construct a perpendicular from R to cut PQ at S. What is the length of RS?

Constructing circles

 

A. 4.9 cm

B. 4.1cm

C. 5.2 cm

D. 5.8 cm Q4 ,2009

36. Point S and line QR are shown in the space below. Using a pair of compasses, drop a perpendicular from point S to meet line QR at T.

 

What is the length of line ST?

A. 2.8 cm

B. 3.5 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 5.5 cm Q13,2010

1. Construct the circle that touches the sides of triangle TUV below.

What is the radius of the circle?

A. 7 cm

B. 6.3 cm

C. 3.3 cm

D. 5.8 cm Q40,2004

2. On line YZ given below, complete the construction of the isosceles triangle XYZ where XY = XZ =
8 cm. Construct a circle centre O which touches the sides of the triangle.

Z

 

What is the radius of the circle?

A. 2 cm

B. 3.6 cm

C. 4.3 cm

D. 5.4 cm Q44, 2006

 

3. Construct a semi-circle whose diameter EF is given below. Construct a line from E to meet the semi-

circle at G such that angle FEG is 30°. Construct a line from F to meet the semi-circle at H such that angle EFH is 20°. Join points E to H, H to G and G to F.

E F

What is the length of line GH? A 3.0cm
B 3.9 cm

C 5.3 cm

D 5.7 cm Q33,2007

 

4. Draw the circle that passes through the points X, Y and Z of the triangle below.

What is the measure of the radius of the circle?

A. 2.0 cm

B. 4.3 cm

C. 5.0 cm

D. 3.0 cm Q24,2008

Pythagorean relationships
3-4 –5, 5-12-13, 7-24-25
1. Kirwa used a ladder to paint the top of a wall. He placed the bottom of the ladder 4 1/2 metres away from the wall. The ladder touched the wall at a height of 6 metres. What was the length of the ladder?
A. 7 1/2 m
B. 10 1/2m
C. 15m
D. 561/4m Q29,2000

2. The top of a 25 m ladder leans on a vertical wall with

its lower end touching the ground.
Which one of the following sets of measurements represents the height of the wall and the
horizontal

distance of the ladder from the wall?

A. 12 m and 13 m

B. 3 m and 4 m

C. 5 m and 12 m

D. 7 m and 24 m Q15,2002

3. Which of the following sets of measurements can be used to construct a right-angled triangle?

A. 1⁄2cm, 6cm, 9cm

B.33⁄4cm, 51⁄4cm, 6cm

C.21⁄4cm, 3cm, 33⁄4cm

D.51⁄4cm, 9cm, 111⁄4cm Q22,2003

4. The top of a ladder, 26 metres long, leans on a vertical wall. The ladder touches the wall at a height of 10 metres. What is the horizontal distance from the bottom of the ladder to the wall?

A. 16 m

B. 18 m

C. 24 m

D. 576 m Q19,2005

5. In the figure below, JK =JL = 25 cm and KM = ML. The perimeter of triangle JKL = 98 cm.

What is the length of the perpendicular line JM in centimetres?
A. 25

B. 24

C. 12

D. 7 Q31,2006

 

6. The figure below is part of a rhombus EFGH. Complete the rhombus.

A 24m

B 26m

C 12m

D 34m Q43, 2008

8. A rectangular plot of of land has a perimeter of 35
m. The longer side is 10 m. A wall is to be constructed along one of the diagonals of the plot. What would be the length of the wall? A. 78 1/8 m
B. 17 1/2 m
C. 7 1/2 m
D. 12 1/2 m Q41,2009
9. Which one of the following sets of measurements will form a right angled triangle when drawn?

A. 9 cm, 16 cm, 25 cm

B. 10 cm, 24 cm, 26 cm

C. 5 cm, 12 cm, 17 cm

D. 7 cm, 2.4 cm, 2.5 cm Q25,2010

Constracting parallelograms,

rhombuses&quadrilaterals
1.

 

 

 

What is the length of half the longer diagonal?

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 8 cm Q26, 2007

7. The area of a right-angled triangular plot is 120 m2. The length of the shortest side is 10m.
What is the length of the longest side?

 

 

 

 

 

Q47,2000

2. Below is part of the construction of a trapezium PQRS. Complete the construction such that angle PQR = 56°.

 

 

 

 

 

What is the length of the side RS?

X Y

What is the length of the diagonal XZ?

A. 5 cm

A. 8.0cm B. 6.3 cm
B. 7.3 cm C. 7 cm
C. 4.5 cm D. 10.5 cm Q5,2002
D. 3.5 cm Q42,2001

3. The diagram below is an incomplete parallellogram PQRS. Complete the parallelogram and draw diagonals QS and PR to intersect at T.

What is the size of angle PTQ? A. 31°
B. 43°

C. 106°

D. 137° Q47,2001

4. The diagram below represents two sides of a parallelogram WXYZ. Complete the parallelogram.

5. Below is part of the construction of a quadrilateral KLMN with diagonals meting at the centre O. complete the construction and draw a perpendicular from L to meet KN at P

 

 

L M

What is the length of LP?

7.8 cm

6.7 cm

4.6 cm

4.4 cm Q43,2003

What is the length of half the longer diagonal?

6. Complete the construction of a parallelogram
PQRS, where line PR is a diagonal.

R

 

 

P Q

What is the length of line QS?

A. 6.7 cm

B. 7.0 cm

C. 3.8 cm

D. 9.1 cm Q48, 2005

7. A certain quadrilateral has the following properties:

Has two sets of parallel sides Has all sides equal
Diagonals bisect each other Some angles are equal
Which quadrilateral has the above properties?

A. Parallelogram

B. Rhombus

C. Square

D. Trapezium
Q21,2006

8. The figure below is part of a rhombus EFGH. Complete the rhombus.

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 8 cm Q27,2006

9. Which one of the following quadrilaterals has only one pair of parallel lines?

A. Rhombus.

B. Trapezium.

C. Parallelogram.

D. Rectangle. Q12,2007

 

10. Line PQ below is the base of the parallelogram PQRS: Complete the parallelogram in which, angle QPS = 60° and line PS = 4.5 cm.

 

 

P Q

What is the height of the parallelogram in cm? A 3.9
B 5.4

C 6.0

D 9.1 Q43,2007

11. On the line MN drawn below, complete the quadrilateral MNPQ in which lines NP = 3 cm and QM = 7 cm.
Angle QMN = 60° and angle MNP = 90°. What is the length of diagonal MP?

 

 

 

 

A 3.4 cm
B 6.2 cm
C 5.0 cm
D 5.8 cm Q14 2008
12. Using line PQ below, construct a parallelogram PQRS in which QR = 7.5 cm and angle SPQ = 60°. Join PR.

 

 

 

 

 

 

What is the size of angle PRS? A. 120°
B. 40°

C. 30°

D. 20° Q14,2009

Which of the following statements is true for triangle MRN?

A. All sides are equal.

B. All angles are equal. C One angle is 60°.
D One angle is a right angle.
Q15,2009

 

14. Which one of the following properties is TRUE for both a square and a rhombus?

A. Diagonals are equal.

B. All angles are equal.

C. Opposite angles add up to two right angles.

D. Diagonals bisect at right angles.

Q 19 ,2010

Face,edges and vertices of trianglar and square based pyramid and prisms
1. Which is the correct order of writing the fractions 3/8, 5/16
,11/32 ,3/48 from the largest to the smallest?

 

A. 13/48 , 11/32 , 5/16 , 3/8

B. 3/8 , 5/16 , 11/32 , 13/48

C. 13/48 ,5/16 , 11/32 , 3/8

13. The figure below is a square in which the

D. 3/

11 5 13
32 16 48

Q 11,2004

diagonals intersect at R.

2. How many vertices does a triangular prism have?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 6

D. 9 Q
6,2006

K.C.P.E REVISION 68

3. How many faces (F), vertices (V) and edges (E) does a triangular prism have?

 

 

 

Q

6. A cuboid measures 6cm long, 5cm wide and 4 cm high.
What is the total length of the edges inCentimeters?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120 Q18,2000

Net of triangular, square

27,2008

4. A packet is in the form of a pyramid with a square base. Which one of the following statements is TRUE of the number of faces, edges and vertices the packet has?
A. 4 faces, 6 edges and 4 vertices
B. 2 faces, 1 edge and 1 vertex

C. 5 faces, 9 edges and 6 vertices

D. 5 faces, 8 edges and 5 vertices. Q23,2010

 

5. A stack of cubes as shown in the figure below was painted on all faces.

How many cubes were painted on three faces?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 12

D. 14 Q46,2002

Based pyramids and prism

1. A pupil arranged matchsticks to form squares as shown below

How many squares were formed altogether? A. 14 B. 13
C. 10 D. 9 Q33,2000
2. The figure below shows a net made up of a square and four equilateral triangles.

Q16, 2005

Q20,2001

 

3. The figure below shows a net made up of three rectangles and two triangles

Which one of the following solids can be formed from this net?

A. Rectangular prism

B. Triangular pyramid

C. Rectangular pyramid

D. Triangular prism Q15,2003

4. Which one of the following is the correct net for an open cube?

5. Below is a net of a solid. The shaded parts are the flaps.

 

 

Which one of the following solids can be formed from the net?

A Rectangular prism. B Triangular pyramid.
C Rectangular pyramid.

D. Triangular prism. Q11, 2007

 

6. The diagram below is a net of a solid.

If the net is folded which one of the following diagrams represents the solid formed?

 

MAKING PATTERNS USING QUADRILATERALS,TRIANGLE AND CIRCLES.
1. Which one of the following shapes can complete the pattern above?

 

 

Q50, 2003

 

2. Which one of the shapes below should be drawn in the blank box to continue with the pattern above?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A

 

 

 

B

 

 

 

 

 

C

4. An incomplete pattern is shown below.

Which one of the shapes below will complete the pattern above? Q50,2006

D Q50,2004

3. Which one of the shapes below would fit in the dotted space in the pattern above?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. The figures below show a pattern of shapes.

Which one of the shapes below should be drawn in the blank box to continue with the pattern?

 

6.

Q50,2000

ALGEBRA

FORMATION AND SIMPLIFICATION OF ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSIONS.

C. 43 1/3

D. 36 2/3 Q32,2005

5. Which one of the following expressions is equal to

1. . What in the value of

m+r2

5(2a – 3b) + 5(a + 5b) ?

3(4a – 3b) + 3(a + 4b)

p + r given that

m = 2p, p = n + 5, n = 3r and r = 5? A. 21/5
B. 23/5
C. 3 1/4
D. 2 Q36,2000
2. What is the value of 2s + r, if q = 4, r = 2q + 1 and s = r + 2? q

A. 5

B. 6 3/4

C. 7

D. 7 ¾ Q22,2001

3. What is the value of the expression

P2 (n – r2) , given that p = 4, n = 6, r = 2?

A. 15a + 10b

15a + 3b

 

B. 5 + 25b

6 + 12b

 

C. 15a + 40b

15a + 21b

D. 15a + 2b 15a + b
Q32,2006

nr

A. 2 2/3

B. 21 1/3

C. 32

D. 1 1/3 Q32,2002

4. What is the value of 1/3 (2x + 4y2) + 5p – 8 when p = 6,

x = 2p and y = ½ x – 1?

 

A. 130

B. 63 1/3
K.C.P.E REVISION

6. There were m men in a bus. The number of children in the bus was three times that of men but eleven more than that of women. The total number of women, men and children in the bus was 45. Which one of the equations below can be used to find the number of men that were in the bus?

A 5 m – 11 = 45

B 4 m + 11 = 45

C 7 m + 11 = 45

D 7 m – 11 = 45 Q35,2007

75

7. Which one of the following expressions is the simplest form of

7(2r + 3) + 4r – 3 ?

2 ( r + 1) + 4r + 7

10. A father shared money among his three children
A 6r + 6 Mulwa, Wangare and Achesa. Wangare received
sh 10 more than Achesa, while Mulwa got twice
2r + 3 the amount Wangare got. If Achesa received sh x,
which one of the following expressions represents

B 6r + 8 the total amount of money given to the three children?
2r + 3 A. 4x + 30
B. 4x + 10
C 9r C. 2x + 20
3r + 4 D. 3x + 30 Q34,2009

D 2 1/2
Q47,2007
11. What is the simplified form of 5x + 1/4 (8x-2y)?

8. Bongo gave 0.12 of his land to his wife, 0.25 to his son and 0.3 to his daughter. If he had 2.4 hectares of land, how many hectares was he left with?

A. 0.72

B 0.288

C 0.6

D 0.792 Q32,2008

 

 

9. On a farm there are cows, goats and sheep. The number of goats is twice the number of cows while the number of sheep is 25 less than the number of goats. If the number of goats is g, how many animals are on the farm?

A 21/2g – 25
K.C.P.E REVISION 76

A. 37x -8y

B. 7x – 1/2y

C. 28x – 2y

D. 7x — 2y Q10,2010

 

FORMING AND SOLVING EQUATIONS

1. What is the value of x in the equation 2(x —6) = 2 ?
5 3

A.72/3

B. 7

C. 22/3

D. 11 Q21,2000

2. A fundraising meeting for Jako, Kabula, Masindu and Buko raised sh. 108, 000. Jako got three times as much as Buko. Masindu got two – thirds of Jako’s share while Kabula got half as much as Jako. How much did Kabula receive?
A. sh.43,200
B. sh.28, 800
C. sh. 21,600
D. sh. 14,400 Q41,2000
3.

Q49,2000

4. Musa, Tom and Sam scored goals for their team during a football match. Musa scored n goals while Sam scored twice as many goals as Musa. Tom
scored two goals less than Sam. What was their total

score?

A. 5n – 2

B. 2n – 2

C. 3n – 2

D. 3n + 2 Q18,2001

5. In a function, the number of women was twice that of men. The number of children was half the total number of men and women. The function was attended by 270 people. How many children attended the function?
A. 90

B. 120

C. 180

D. 60 Q46,2001
K.C.P.E REVISION

6. Fundi, Halima and Gitonga are employed in a firm. Fundi’s monthly salary is sh 50 more than
that of Gitonga. Halima’s monthly salary is sh 90 more than half of the total amount earned by Fundi and Gitonga.

If Fundi’s salary is sh n, which one of the expressions below represents the total monthly income of the three employees?
A. sh 3n + 165

B. sh 4n – 10

C. sh 3n – 30

D. sh 3n + 15 Q26,2002

7. Agola bought n oranges and Mwangi bought n+1 oranges. Mueni bought twice as many oranges as both Agola and Mwangi. Which one of the following expressions shows the total number of oranges brought?

A.A.6n+3

B. 5n+2 D.2n+3 2
C.4n+ Q30,2003

8. What is the value of x in the equation?

3⁄5 (x-5) + 2⁄5 (3x+5) = 10

A.61⁄9 B.55⁄5 C.5
D.12⁄3 Q35,2003

9. Three pupils Furaha, Gitahi and Komen contributed a total of sh. 400 for a party. Furaha contributed

77

sh. 30 more than Gitahi while, Komen contributed three times as much as Furaha.
If Komen contributed sh x, which one of the
equations below can be used to find Komen’s contribution?
A.5x-90 = 1 200

B.5x – 90 = 400

C.5x+ 90 = 1 200

D.7x – 30 = 400 Q45,2003

 

10. Given that MK = and K = 16.5, what is the value of M?

A.0.1 B.1 C.0.01
D.10 Q47,2003

 

11. Kigen bought goods worth sh 2400. He gave the shopkeeper three sh 1000 notes. He received the balance in equal numbers of sh 200 and sh 100 notes.
What total number of notes did he receive?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3 Q28,2004

12. The number of patients who visited a health centre on Monday was 125, on Tuesday was 163 and on

Wednesday was 210.

On Thursday the number was 15 less than those who visited on Wednesday. Equal number of patients visited the centre on Friday and on

Saturday. The total number of patients who visited the centre in the six days was 1089

How many patients visited the centre on Friday? A. 396
B. 288

C. 183

D. 198 Q30,2004

13. Sara bought pawpaws, oranges and mangoes. The number of pawpaws bought was 8 more than the number of oranges. The number of mangoes was twice the total number of oranges and pawpaws.

The total number of fruits bought was 48.

 

If the number of oranges was x, which of the

equations below can be used to find the number of

oranges bought? A. 3x + 24 = 48
B. 6x + 16 = 48

C. 6x + 24 = 48

D. 4x + 16 = 48 Q47,2004

14. What is the value of x in 3(2x + 1) + 5(x + 4) = 61? A. 3 5/11

B. 5 1/11

C. 7 7/11

D. 81 1/11 Q15,2005

K.C.P.E REVISION 78

15. What is the value of x in the equation 1¼ x + 4 = 13 – x?
A. 68

B. 36

C. 75/9

D. 4 Q17,2006

 

16. The number of women passengers in a bus was W. The number of children in the bus was three times that of men passengers but was 6 more than that of women.

Which one of the following expressions shows the total number of passengers in the bus?

A. 21/3 W + 8

B. 21/3W – 8

C. 21/3W + 12

D. 5W + 24
Q41,2006

17. Kamau, Wasike and Omollo sell newspapers. One day Omollo sold 20 newspapers more than Wasike who sold 10 newspapers more than Kamau.
The total number of newspapers they sold that day
was 140.
If Wasike sold y newspapers, which one of the following equations can be used to find the
number
of newspapers sold by Wasike?

A. 3y+10=140
B. 3y + 30=140
C. 3y + 20=140
D. y + 30=140 Q47,2006

18. What is the value of x in the equation

 

2x – 3 + 2x = 6

3

A. 1 1/8

B. 5 7/8

C. 1 7/8

D. 2 5/8 Q21,2007

19. Otieno, Leila, Rotich and Furaha shared sh 840. Otieno got twice as much as Leila. Leila got three times as much as Rotich while Rotich got half of what Furaha got. What was the difference between Otieno’s share and Furaha’s share?

A. sh 350

B. sh 420

C. sh 210

D. sh 280 Q22,2008

20. What is the value of y in the equation

 

2/3 (6y – 2) = 2y + 4 ?

A 22/3

B 3

C 8/9

D 11/3 Q42,2008

21. A rectangular container is 80 cm long, 50 cm wide and 40 cm high. The container is filled with water to a level 30 cm high. What is the volume of the

K.C.P.E REVISION 79

empty space in the container? A. 180 000 cm3

p + r given that

m+r2

B. 160 000 cm3

C. 120 000 cm3

D. 40 000 cm3 Q26,2009

22. What is the value of x in the equation

 

½ (x + 1) + 1/3 (2x – 1) = 5

A. 4 1/

B. 4 2/7

C. 4 3/7

D. 4/7 Q22,2010

23. Three schools Mwangaza, Kivuli and Nuru received a total donation of 165 textbooks. Kivuli got 8 books more than Mwangaza, while Nuru got half the total of what Mwangaza and Kivuli got. If the number of books donated to Mwangaza is represented by the letter m, which one of the following equations can be used to get the value of m?

A. 6 m + 24 = 165

B. 1 1/2 m + 12 = 165

C. 3 m + 12 = 165

D. 3 m – 12 = 165 Q36,2010

 

SUBSTITUTION IN ALGERAIC
EXPRESSIONS

1. What in the value of

m = 2p, p = n + 5, n = 3r and r = 5? A. 21/5
B. 23/5
C. 3 1/4
D. 2 Q36,2000
2. What is the value of 2s + r, if q = 4, r = 2q + 1 and s = r + 2? q

A. 5

B. 6 3/4

C. 7

D. 7 ¾ Q22,2001

3. What is the value of the expression

P2 (n – r2) , given that p = 4, n = 6, r = 2?
nr

A. 2 2/3

B. 21 1/3

C. 32

D. 1 1/3 Q32,2002

4. What is the value of 1/3 (2x + 4y2) + 5p – 8 when p = 6,

x = 2p and y = ½ x – 1?

 

A. 130

B. 63 1/3

C. 43 1/3

D. 36 2/3 Q32,2005

5. What is the value of given that r =6,

p = r + 2 and q = p – 3? A. 568/11
B. 386/11

C. 306/11

D. 204/5 Q35, 2005

6. What is the value of + n where n = 5, y = 2n ,

 

q = n + 9 and r = q – 6 ? A 7
B 2 1/2

C 6 1/5

D 11 Q25,2008

 

7. What is the value of 2w (x -2)2 when x = 5, y = x + 3

A. 12

B. 24

C. 36

D. 144 Q17,2009

 

SIMPLIFYING INEQUALIITIES IN ONE UNKNOWN

1. Which me of the following statement is correct? A. 3/4 > 0.75
B. 1/9 < 0.1

C. 4/3 < 1.3

D. 2/5 < 0.5 Q2,2009

y + 1

and w = 2x + 3y

TABLES AND GRAPHS

 

DRAWING TABLES AND GRAPHS.

1.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Soda E F G H J
Number of pupils 12 18 15 24 21

Which one of the pie charts below correctly represents this information?

 

 

 

Q10,2002

 

4. The table below shows Mwasi’s income from the sale of farm produce, during one year. The information on the
income for potatoes is not given.

 

A pie-chart was drawn to represent the information

above. If the angle representing the income for beans was 63°, what was the income for potatoes?

A. sh 120 000

B. sh 18 000

C. sh 17 850

D. sh 102 000 Q 32 ,
2004

 

5. A cyclist rode for two hours at an average speed of 12 km/h. He rested for 30 minutes and continued for one hour at an average speed of 8 km/h.

Which one of the graphs below represents the cyclist’s journey?

Q49,2005

Produce Wheat Maize Beans Potatoes
Income sh 45
000 sh 36
000 sh 21
000

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6. The graph below shows Midi’s journey from town X to town Y.

 

 

 

Distance in

 

Town X 7.30 8.30 9.30 10.30 11.30 12.30

What was the average speed, in km/h, for the whole journey?
A. 721/2
B. 70
C. 644/9
D. 444/9 Q43,2006

7. The graph below shows part of the journeys made by Chebet and Keya on the same road.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chebet travelled from town Y to town X at a constant speed. Keya travelled from town X and to town Y. After covering 20 km he rested for 30 minutes. He then continued at an average speed of 40 km/h.
Complete the graphs of the journeys. At what time did they meet?
K.C.P.E RAE.V9I.S0I0OaN.m 85
B. 8.40 a.m
C. 9.10 a.m
D. 8. 50 a.m Q42,2007

8. The table below shows the number of 90 kg bags of maize that Mutiso sold to a miller in the years 1998

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

11. A kiosk sold soda, juice, porridge and tea. A pie- chart was drawn to represent the number of people who took each drink. Those who took juice were represented by 140° and porridge by 40°. The size of the angle of those who took tea was twice the angle for soda. Twenty people took porridge.

How many more people took juice than those who took tea?

A 10

B 60

C 70

D 130 Q30,2008

 

Interplating tables and graphs
1. The table below shows the maximum and minimum temperatures, in degrees Celsius, recordedin different cities on one day..

City Maximum °C Minimum °C
Dar- es- Salaam .33 22
Khartoum 31 16
Accra 32 24
Entebbe 30 18
In which city was the mean temperature highest that day?
A. Dar-es-Salam.
B. Khartoum.
C. Entebbe.
D. Accra. Q11,2000

2. A farm produced oranges (O), Pawpaws (P), guavas (G), bananas (B) and lemons (L). The pie -chart below represents quantities of each type of fruit produced in one week.

 

Which one of the bar graphs below represents the information obtained from the pie-chart above?

Q32,2000

3. The bar graph below shows the number of eggs sold

by Mutiso in six days. The highest number of eggs sold was 75.

 

Wambua and Otieno.

 

In which three consecutive days was the total number of eggs sold the highest?
A. Tue, Wed, Thur

B. Mon, Tue, Wed

C. Thur, Fri, Sat

D. Wed, Thur, Fri Q32,2001
4. The incomplete table below shows the numbers of people who attended a football match and the
gate

charges. The number of children is not shown.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

If the total amount collected was ksh. 60 000, how many people altogether attended the match?
A. 200

B. 1000

C. 1540

D. 1740 Q49,2001

 

 

5. The graph below shows journeys of two cyclists,

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

At what time was Otieno 10 km ahead of Wambua? A. 10.30 a.m.
B. 9.27 a.m.

C. 9.00 a.m.

D. 7.12 a.m. Q50,2001

6. The graph below represents the journey of a car travelling from town S to town T.

9. The graph below shows a school advisor’s journey from schools W to P through schools L, K and M

 

What was the average speed for the journey? A. 56 1/4 km/h
B. 57 1/2 km/h

C. 65 km/h

D. 65 5/7 km/h Q47,2002

7. The table below shows the number of times the

45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
7.00

 

 

 

 

8.00

 

 

 

 

9.00 10.00 11.00 noon

teams Simba, Moto and Dawa won drew or lost in a competition. Three points were awarded for each game won, one point for each game drawn

am am

am am am

and no points for a game lost.

Which of the following is the order in which the teams were ranked?

 

 

 

Q19,2003

 

8. The total number of pupils enrolled in schools in a district was 48 000. In a pie chart the number enrolled in secondary schools was represented by an angle of 120° while, that in the primary schools was represented by 150°. The rest were enrolled in the pre-primary schools. What was the number in the pre-primary schools?

A.36 000

B.20 000

C.16 000

D.12 000 Q21,2003

Between which two schools was she travelling at

SIMBA MOTO DAWA
WON 2 4 3
DRAWN 5 1 5
LOST 3 5 2
the highest speed?

A.M and P

B.K and M

C.L and K

D.W and L Q40, 2003

10. The table below shows the number of tonnes of sugar produced and sold by a factory in 6 days.

Days Mon Tue Wed Thur Fri Sat
Tones produced 60 25 30 20 25 15
Tones sold 40 70 40 30 50 25

On which day was the number of tonnes of sugar sold one and a half times the number of tonnes produced?
A. Thur

B. Mon

C. Wed

D. Sat Q29 2004

 

 

11. The table below represents the sales of milk in litres by a vendor in five days. The sale for Thursday is not shown.
One litre of milk was sold for sh 25. The vendor got

a total of sh 2 925 for the sale of milk during the five

days.

How many more litres of milk did the vendor sell on Thursday than on Tuesday?

 

 

A. 9

B. 28

C. 47

D. 117 Q17, 2005

12. Below is a travel graph showing the journey of a motorist travelling from town L to town K and back, and that of a cyclist travelling from town L to town K.

How far from town L was the cyclist when he met the

motorist travelling back to town L?

A. 40 km
B. 32 km
C. 20 km
D. 8 km Q31
,2005
13. The population of a village is represented by the pie chart below.

If there were 300 girls, how many more boys than men were there?
A. 80
B. 100
C. 180
D. 50 Q47, 2005

14. The bar graph below shows the number of kilograms of sugar consumed by a school in five days.

DAYS

In which pair of consecutive days was the total consumption the highest?
A. Mon and Tue

B. Tue and Wed

C. Wed and Thur

D. Thur and Fri Q29, 2006

15. The table below shows the number of vehicles that passed near a school in one week. The average number of vehicles per day was 116. The number of vehicles that passed near the school on Friday is not shown.

 

MON TUE WED THUR FRI SAT SUN
125 75 112 100 …….. 148 112

How many more vehicles passed near the school on Friday than on Tuesday?
A 595

B 215

C 140

D 65 Q22,
2007

 

16. The pie-chart below shows how Kesenet spent her salary.

How much more did she spend on loan than on rent if she spent sh 4 000 on food?

A sh 5 000

B sh 3 000

C sh 2 000

D sh 1 000 Q37, 2007

 

17. The bar graph below shows, the number and sizes of pairs of shoes, sold in one week.

Which size of shoe was bought most?

A. 12 Fourteen passengers boarded the matatu at
B. 11 Nairobi.
C. 8 Seven of the passengers alighted at Gilgil while

D. 7
Q9, five
2009 others boarded at Gilgil for Nakuru.
How much money altogether did the driver
collect?

18. Below are two graphs. One graph shows the
journey by a bus from Nairobi to Nakuru. The other shows the journey by a car from Nakuru to Nairobi.

 

How far from Nakuru was the bus when the car reached Nairobi?

A. 115 km

B. 90 km

C. 60 km

D. 35 km. Q18, 2009

13. The table below shows the fare in shillings for a matatu travelling from Nairobi to Nakuru.

A. sh 3 650

B. sh 3 500

C. sh 3 150

D. sh 1 900
Q23,2009

14. The table below shows the number of pupils who were in standard 1 to 4 in a certain school from 2001 to 2004.

 

How many pupils of the class which was in Std 1 in 2001 had dropped out of that class by 2004?

A. 24

B. 16

C. 10

D. 8 Q24,2009

15. The table below shows how Kigen utilizes his piece of land.

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 92

Purpose Homestea d Maize Cultivatio n Tea Cultivatio n Grazin g
Number 3/
4 11/4 1
of 11/2
Hectare
s

Which one of the bar graphs below correctly represents the

information above. Q28, 2010 16. The graph below shows the journeys of two
motorists Karimi and Nzomo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3. The mean of six numbers is 4 2/3. Five of these

How far from town X was Nzomo when Karimi stopped to rest?

A. 60 km

B. 185 km

C. 215 km

D. 250 km Q47 ,2010

 

Median as a value in a set of ordered data
1. A teacher measured the heights of nine pupils in a class. The heights of eight of the pupils were 167 cm, 170 cm, 167 cm, 175 cm, 170 cm, 172 cm, 167 cm and 168 cm. The total height of the eight pupils was 1356 cm. If the mean height of the nine pupils was 169 cm, what was the median height?
A. 170cm, B. 168cm
C. 167cm D. 165cm
Q39,2000
2. Maria sat for ten subjects in an examination. Her marks in nine subjects, excluding science, was as follows:

numbers are 5, 3, 7, 8 and 3. What is the median of the six numbers?
A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2 Q40,2002

 

4.The heights of six pupils were recorded as 1.35m, 1.42m, 1.40m, 1.50m, 1.35m and 1.35m. What was the median height?

1.35m

m

m

1.45m Q3, 2003

 

Working out problems involving mean, mode and median

 

60,

Mathematics 78, Kiswahili 81, GHC 77, Religious Education 69, English 73, Art and Craft

Agriculture 52, Business Education 60, and

Home Science 55.

 

If her total marks in the ten subjects was 680, what was her median mark?
A. 60

B. 68

C. 71

D. 75 Q36,2001

18. Below is the number of tree seedlings planted by each pupil on a tree planting day:

8 15 11 9 17 14 12 14 13

10 18 8 9 16 13 13 10 12

What was the mean number of seedlings planted by each pupil?

A. 12 1/

B. 222

C. 12 1/

D. 13 Q8, 2004

19. The ages, in years, of 10 pupils in a class are: 16, 18, 15, 14, 17, 16, 14, 13, 19 and 14. What is the median age of the pupils?

A. 16.5

B. 15.6

C. 14

D. 15.5
Q10,2005

20. The heights in centimetres of 10 pupils are given below:
169, 173, 158, 170, 159, 171, 163, 159, 180, 167
What is the mean height of the pupils?
A. 159 cm
B. 166.9 cm
C. 168 cm
D. 1 669 cm Q8,2006
21. Ali and Maingi sat for five subjects in an examination. The total marks for Maingi were 15 less than those of Ali.The mean mark for Ali was
65. What was the mean mark for Maingi? A 50
B 62
C 68
D 310 Q15,2007
22. The mean of 7 numbers is 4. Six of the numbers are: 2, 3, 1, 2, 7, 8. What is the median of the seven numbers?
A. 2
B. 2.5
C. 3
D. 5 Q19, 2008
23. The bar graph below shows the number of pupils in six classes in a school.

What is the mean number of pupils per class?

A. 26

B. 38

C. 41

D. 246 Q27, 2009

 

23. The number of birds observed in a certain area during certain months of the year are as shown in the table below.

MONTHS APRIL MAY JUNE JULY AUGUST
NUMBER OF BIRDS 96 104 80 118 94

Which one of the following numbers is the highest mean of the birds recorded into two consecutive months?
A. 106
B. 99
C. 111
D. 100 Q20, 2010
24. The table below shows the number of crates of soda Mutuma sold in one week. The number of crates sold on Friday was not recorded.

 

DAY OF WEEK MON TUE WED THUR FRI SAT SUN
NUMBER OF CRATES
8
10
11
18

–
16
8

If the total number of crates of soda sold in seven days was 84. What was the median sale?

A. 13

B. 12

C. 11

D. 8 Q39, 2010

 

SCALE DRAWING
Reading and interpreting scale diagrams

 

1. The scale on a map is 1:200. What length on the map would rep resent a distance of 50 metres?

A . 0.25 cm

B. 25cm

C. 4 cm

D. 2.5 cm Q21, 2008

Linear scale in ratio form drawing

1. A road measuring 3 cm on a map has an actual

length of 12 kilometres. What is the scale used on
the

map? A. 1 : 4
B. 1 : 400

C. 1 : 4 000

D. 1 : 400 000 Q23,2002

2. A distance of 480m is represented on a scale drawing by a line measuring 2.4 cm. what is the scale used?

A.1:20 B.1:200 C. 1:2000
D.1:20000 Q17
2003

3. A length of 4.6 cm on a scale drawing represents an actual length of 9200 m. What is the scale used?

A. 1 : 200

B. 1: 2000

C. 1 : 20000

D. 1 : 200000 Q10, 2004

 

4. A distance of 5 kilometres is represented on a map

by a length of 4 centimetres. What is the scale used? A. 1:125

B. 1:1 250

C. 1:12 500

D. 1:125 000 Q15,
2006

Working out problems involving scale

5. A rectangular field measuring 560 m by 800 m is to be represented on a scale drawing using the scale 1:20 000. What is the area of the scale drawing in square centimeters?
A. 1120
B. 22.4
C. 11.2
D. 2240 Q38,2000
6. On a map drawn to the scale 1:500 is a plot of land in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides measure 5 cm and 2 cm. The perpendicular distance between the parallel sides is 4 cm.
What is the actual area of the plot in square metres?
A. 35 000

B. 3 500

C. 350

D. 35 Q24,2001

7. A map is drawn to a scale of 1:20 000. What is the

distance, in kilometres, of a road which is 25 cm on the map?

A 5

B 50

C 500

D 5000 Q8, 2007

8. The scale drawing below represents four towns U, V, W and X. The shortest distance from town V to W is 450 km.

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 97

What is the distance from town U to town X through town V and W?

A 100 km

B 1 350 km

C 2 480 km

D 1 130 km Q40, 2008

 

9. The diagram below is a scale drawing of a plot of land drawn to the scale 1:1 500.

What is the actual area of the plot, in m2?

A. 600 000

B. 90 000

C. 3 500

D. 510 Q31, 2009

 

10. On a map whose scale is 1:50 000 a piece of land is represented by a rectangle measuring 3 cm by 2
cm. What is the actual size of this land in hectares?
A. 15
B. 150
C. 1 500
D. 15 000 Q35, 2010

 

RATIO AND PROPORTION
Comparison using ratio

five minutes whereas four are born every minute. What is the difference between the number of antelopes that are born and those that die in one day?

A. 4396

B. 1440

C. 5 Q34,2004

2. In a group of 126 spectators the ratio of men to women was 3:4. What is the new ratio if 2 more men and 8 more women joined the group of spectators?

A. 7:10

B. 5:12

C. 13:16

D. 1:4
Q36,2005

3. Mbogo and Kihara shared some money such that Mbogo got ¾ of the money shared out. What was
the ratio of Mbogo’s share to that of Kihara? A. 4:3
B. 3:1

C. 3:4

D. 1:3 Q36,2006

Sharing using ratio
1. Auma and Maina shared the profit from the sale of fish in the ratio 3:4. If the profit was sh 8 400, how much money did Auma get?

A sh 3 600

B sh 4 800

C sh 6 300

D sh 11 200
Q6,2007

1. According to a survey, three antelopes die every

sh 21 000 into one thousand shillings notes

Increasing and decreasing quantities using ratio

 

1..A rectangular water tank whose base is 1.5 m by
0.5 m is to be filled with water using 50 litre containers. How many such containers will be required to fill the tank to a height of 1 metre?

A. 15

B. 1.5

C. 150

D. 1500
Q44,2010

 

Ratio as a fraction ,decimal and percentage and vice versa
1. . What is the ratio 3 : 5 expressed as a decimal? A. 1.6
B. 0.625
C. 0.6
D. 0.375 Q12,2000
2. Which one of the ratios below represents 0.75? A. 3 : 40
B. 3 : 7

C. 4 : 3

D. 3 : 4 Q27,2002

3. Which of the following represents the ratio 4 : 5 expressed as a percentage?

A.444/9% B.555/9% C. 80%
D.125% Q18,2003

4. Mukami had 135 two hundred shillings notes which she changed as follows:

sh 3 000 into five hundred shillings notes

sh 2 000 into one hundred shillings notes and

the remaining amount of money into fifty shillings notes.

How many notes did she get altogether?

A. 67

B. 54

C. 47

D. 20 Q14,2006

 

5. In a class the ratio of the number of boys to girls is 2:3 What is the percentage of the number of boys in the class?
A. 311/3%

B. 40%

C. 60%

D. 662/3% Q35,2009

Direct and indirect proportion; solving problems

1. Fifteen people working at the same rate would complete some work in 10 days. How many days would 6 people . need to complete the same work?
A. 4 B. 9
C. 25 D. 150 Q22,2000
2. A factory hired 48 labourers to complete a job in 24 hours. If 12 labourers failed to turn up for the job, how many more hours did those who turned up take to complete the job?
A. 8

B. 32

C. 48

D. 72 Q34,2001

3. Muya earns sh. 5 400 after working for 24 days. How much money should he receive if he is absent for 6 days?

D. 91 Q40,2006

7. Four workers take 10 hours to complete a certain

 

 

 

 

4. Katana ‘s car uses 1 litre of petrol to cover 12.5 km while simiyu’s car uses 1 litre to cover 9.6km.
If each car covers 60km, how much more petrol does Simiyu’s car use than Katana’s?

A.11.05l B.6.25l C.4.80l
D.1.45l Q46,2003
5. Sixteen workers can dig a field in 12 days. How many more workers are required so as to do the work in 8 days?
A. 40

B. 24

C. 8

D. 10 Q18,2005

6 Forty two men were hired to repair a stretch of road

in 14 days. How many more men should be hired if the work was to be finished in 12 days?
A. 6

B. 7

C. 49

D 1 Q36,2007

8. Eighteen people can take 72 days to complete a piece of work. If 2 of the people did not turn up for the work, how many more days would the remaining number of people, working at the same rate, take to complete the work?

A. 9

B. 81

C. 153

D. 575 Q44,2009

9. A factory hired 9 people to complete a piece of work in 15 hours. How many more hours did it take them to complete the work if 3 people did not turn up?
A. 30 hours

B. 22 1/2 hours

C. 5 hours

D. 7 ½ hours Q24,2010

 

TOPIC 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
Parts of speech

 

5

10,11

1

17,9
-Nouns 6,15 9,12 11 6 1,5,12 10, 8 4, 6,
3,4,14
-Verbs 6 1,9,11, 13,24
2
-Conjunctions 2, 13 13 1 3 25
10,1
-Adverbs 10 1, 14 4, 16, 14 7, 4 5
8
-Preposition 4, 8, 3 6 12 7, 4 15, 11, 22, 2
5
-Adjective 1 3 8 9, 8 23 7, 10, 37
-Interjections 6,7 5 15 2, 11 14, 37, 34,

-Pronouns
30
2,10 2, 7 2
Tenses 9, 13 11, 14 7, 32 11, 5 26, 27, 28 5 14
Direct/ indirect speech 22
Active/ passive voice
Synonyms 30, 40 27, 31, 32,
44 21, 22,28 19, 23, 44 21, 23, 24,
25, 27 19, 20, 21, 28, 33 19, 20, 27, 31
Antonyms 20, 21
Vocabulary 31, 34, 36,
42, 49 26,36, 42 33, 35, 43 27, 35, 43 32, 40, 45,
48 41, 28, 42 27,41, 42,

47 3,4,7,8,15,4 3
Question tags 23
Phrasal verbs 21, 22, 14, 19, 20, 15, 20, 21 37 3 22, 21 14, 48
23 34

Punctuation 21, 22 24, 25 24, 25

Sensible paragraphing 19, 20 24, 25 24, 25 16, 17 22, 23
Common errors in English
Facts and opinions 26, 27, 37,
41 23, 24, 25,
40 20, 49, 5O 28, 30,

39, 41 5,46,
47, 50 26, 27, 29,
31,32 16, 17, 18, 26. 32,
43, 35, 33, 39, 40,
48 26,27,30,31
,32,34,39,4
1,44,45,49
Use of the right word given 6, 11, 12,
15 4, 15, 12 11, 12, 13 6,7, 13, 14,
18, 45 12, 15 9 8, 12, 3, 36,
45,44 2,6,28,12,2
9,3336,
37,38,42,46
Giving a story a title 38 50 38 50 50 38, 50 38, 50 50
Proverbs / meaning 38 38
Sentence patterns 16, 17, 18 19, 20 16, 18, 47 16, 17, 18 19
Use of key word (bold) 50 50 35, 42; 46 40, 47, 36, 30 37, 46, 3 18,40,47
Formation of a word (noun, adjective ) etc
General terms 24, 25 16,17, 18 39, 40, 43, 29, 46
Homophones/Atomonyms
Articles 13
Conditionals

g 16

 

 

 

K.C.P.E

K.N.E.C.

ENGLISH

2000-2011

WITH BEST COMPOSITIONS

AND

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2003

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION
Time: 40 minutes

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

You have 40 minutes to write your composition.

The following is the beginning of a story. Write and complete the story. Make your story as interesting as you can.

The occasion was very different from what we had expected. Even before we entered the room, we could hear some noises . . .

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2003

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE
Questions 1 to 15

 

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the best
answer from the choices given.

No pork or beef was 1 eaten at my grandmother’s house, 2 rarely was there meat of any kind. We occasionally ate fish, but only those that had scales. Baking powder was never 3 ; it was 4 to contain a chemical 5 to the body. For all the 6 – breakfast, lunch and supper – we ate porridge and a mixture of mashed potatoes and vegetables. Grandmother put very little salt 7 she claimed it was bad 8 the heart. I am sure you 9 guess that the food was tasteless. 10 we ate it for we had no 11 .

The food and her 12 discipline made life in my grandmother’s house miserable. You 13 not shout or even disagree with another person. She was deeply religious and wanted total harmony in her household. I did not really disagree with what she 14 , but I felt like a prisoner, without any 15 to do what I wanted.

 

1. A. hardly B. never C. ever D. usually
2. A. and B. but C. for D. as
3. A. allowed B. known C. found D. used
4. A. said B. considered C. meant D. felt
5. A. bad B. harmful C. offensive D. hostile
6. A. dishes B. meals C. foods D. menus
7. A. and B. which C. because D. so

8. A. for B. in C. to D. on
9. A. could B. should C. can D. will
10. A. Moreover B. So C. Furthermore D. Nevertheless
11. A. alternative B. otherwise C. nothing D. other
12. A. serious B. strict C. severe D. harsh
13. A. will B. should C. shall D. could

14. A. stood for B.believed about C. wanted D. required

15. A. space B. freedom C. choice D. chance

In questions 16 to 18, choose the best
alternative to complete the sentences.

16. It was not until five o’clock

A. and the game ended

B. when the game ended

C. that the game ended

D. then the game ended.

17. Some people prefer walking

A. than driving

B. to driving

C. not driving

D. besides driving.

18. The athlete is too slow

A. to win the race

B. for winning the race

C. he can’t win the race

D. that he can’t win the race.

For questions 19 and 20, arrange the sentences given to form a sensible paragraph.

19. (i) She had such perfect features that the hunter could not quite believe she was real.
(ii) A hunter sat by a river to rest.

(iii) The woman was as beautiful as a gazelle.

(iv) He noticed a faint ripple in the water and when he looked more closely, he saw that it was a woman swimming.
A. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

C. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

D. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

20. (i) The town was slowly waking to life.

(ii) It was six fifteen, and the sun was rising.

(iii) He looked at the cheap alarm clock on the chair by his bedside.
(iv) Kyalo stirred for a while and then sat up.

A. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

C. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

For questions 21 to 23, select the alternative that can best replace the underlined words.

K.C.P.E REVISION 108

21. After a hard day’s work, she was very exhausted.
A. bored

B. worn-out

C. extremely weak

D. finished

 

 

22. They welcomed the guest with open arms.

D. jog

25. A. stationery

B. equipment

C. cupboard

D. luggage.

A. happily

B. excitedly

C. willingly

D. warmly

23. Kambo called on his old friend last week.

 

A. visited

B. rang

C. checked

D. saw

In questions 24 and 25, select the alternative that does not fit in the group.

24. A. walk

B. crawl

C. run

Read the following passage and then answer questions 26 to 38.

Grandmother had always warned us against being rude to people, especially those older than ourselves. She said rude children were a shame to their parents, and could bring ill-fortune to
themselves. She insisted that adults had to be addressed with respect as “mother” of “father of so and so”, “uncle” or “aunt” as appropriate. We never took her seriously until one of us learnt a lesson the hard way.

One day my brother Tope, three of my cousins and I were playing our favorite game of hide and seek. Everybody else had been discovered easily except Tope. We had totally failed to locate him until a stranger came along. To our amazement, he stopped and seemed to be talking to a big tree by the path. We moved closer and heard him say, “Please show me where the shopping centre is.”

It was then that we heard Tope tell the stranger, “Ssshh! Go away. You’ll make them discover where I am.”
We all started shouting, “Tope, we have found you at last!”

Tope angrily sprang out of his hiding place. The stranger was now confused. “Where is the shopping centre?” he asked.

Tope gave him an angry look and shouted, “Crooked legs, the shopping centre is up here in my nostrils.”
My cousins burst out laughing while the stranger stood there shocked at such misconduct. It was then that Grandmother’s words came to my mind. Not sure of what my playmates would say, I hesitantly gave the stranger the direction to the shopping centre.

“Thank you very much,” he said and walked away.

A week later, Tope and his friends went to pick mangoes. They had collected some when they realised that the biggest and ripest were at the topmost part of one of the trees. None of the children was willing to climb upto this part; the height was simply scaring. They tried to bring down the mangoes by hitting them with stones but they kept missing. They had almost given up when Tope volunteered to climb up the tree. The others watched in disbelief as their hero climbed higher and higher. As soon as he got to the top of the tree, he started throwing down the juicy mangoes to the excited children.

26. What do we learn about “Grandmother” from the first paragraph?
A. She hated rude children.

B. She feared ill-fortune.

C. She was concerned about her grandchildren.
D. She was harsh to her grandchildren.

27. The children were amazed because

A. they saw a stranger talking to Tope

B. they had totally failed to locate Tope

C. the stranger didn’t know where the shopping centre was
D. the stranger seemed to be talking to no one.

28. Why did Tope angrily spring out of his hiding place?
A The stranger had discovered him.

B. The children were moving closer and closer.
C. The stranger had ruined the game for him.

D. The children started shouting.

29. Why was the writer hesitant about giving the stranger directions.
A. He feared that his playmates would beat him.
B. He didn’t know the direction very well.

C. He had been warned about talking to strangers.

D. He feared that the other children might disapprove of his action.

30. “. . . that my Grandmother’s words came to mind ” What words were these?
A. That we should only respect older people.

B. That we should address people appropriately.
C. That we should help all people.

D. That we should respect all people.

31. Which of the following does NOT describe the writer?
A. obedient

B. cowardly

C. kind

D. Polite

32. The words “given up” can best be replaced by

A. surrendered

B. despaired

C. become hopeless

D. become impatient

 

 

33. There was total confusion after Tope fell because
A. he fell with a thud

K.C.P.E REVISION 111

B. he broke his leg

C. the children could only watch helplessly

D. the children didn’t know what to do.

 

 

 

34. The word “mimicking” as used in the passage means
A. imitating

B. copying

C. repeating

D. mocking

35. The shock that made Tope pass out was caused by
A. the pain in the leg

B. his learning the truth

C. his recognition of the doctor

D. the presence of the doctor.

36. Tope could best be described as

A. heroic

B. naughty

C. fearful

D. amusing

37. The doctor’s behaviour teaches us that we

A. shouldn’t take revenge

B. shouldn’t ask for directions

C. should give treatment to our enemies

D. should always be thankful.

38. An appropriate title for this story would be:

A. Grandmother’s words of wisdom

B. Tope’s dangerous adventures

C. Tope learns an important lesson

D. The kind and forgiving doctor

Read the following passage and then answer questions 39 to 50.

 

Many people take sodas and yet have never stopped to think what is in them. Well, maybe they
should.

The manufacturers of soft drinks use little quantities of a chemical – ethylene glycol, popularly known as anti-freeze in the drinks. This chemical prevents water from freezing at the normal temperature of 0° C. This in effect means that the drink can remain liquid even down to levels of -4° C or -5° C. They refer to this as “really chill.”

The chemical, ethylene glycol, is a slow poison. If a person drinks four litres of soda, this could be their last drink.

Furthermore, manufacturers use carbon dioxide in liquid form to preserve the drinks. After a soda drinking contest at a University in India, the winner, who had downed eight bottles, fainted on the spot. The reason was that there was too much carbon dioxide in his blood. Needless to say, sodas were banned in that particular institution as a result. No one would advise anybody to drink carbon dioxide.

For most soft drinks the acid level measures around 3-4 on the acidity scale. This amount of acidity is strong enough to dissolve bones and teeth. In one experiment, a famous brand of cola dissolved a whole broken tooth after ten days!

Soft drinks contain no nutritional value. On the contrary, they have a high sugar content, carbonic and phosphoric acid, a variety of chemicals, flavourings and colourings.

The practice of taking cold drinks after a meal is particularly not advisable. Our body needs at least a temperature of 37° C for the digestive enzymes to function. The temperature of cold drinks is close to 0° C. This will reduce the effectiveness of the enzymes, thus making digestion difficult. Instead of the food getting digested, it becomes fermented. The fermented food produces gases, decays and becomes toxic. It is absorbed by the intestines, circulates in the blood stream and is carried to the whole body.
Hence toxic substances collect in other parts of the body, causing a variety of diseases.

People may not stop drinking sodas altogether but they can reduce the amount they take or switch to alternatives. Fresh juices and plain water are healthful and people should be encouraged to get used to them early in life. By the way, the artificial juices (squashes) found in shops are no better than

39. The first paragraph suggests that people should
A. think seriously as they drink sodas

B. think about the contents of sodas

C. drink sodas as they think

D. drink sodas and think.

40. “… this could be their last drink” means the person may
A. die as a result

B. be poisoned slowly

C. be very full

D. not want another soda.

41. Manufacturers of soft drinks use ethylene glycol to keep the drinks
A. from getting chilly

B. liquid below 0° C

C. for a long time

D. soft and chilly.

42. The word “downed” as used in the passage means:
A. drank

B. knocked down

C. finished

D. put down

43. The University in India banned sodas in

the institution because they did not want students to
A. take sodas

B. have soda drinking contests

C. faint after drinking

D. take carbon dioxide.

44. The broken tooth dissolved because

A. this was only an experiment

B it had stayed in the cola for ten days

C. the acidity in the cola was very high

D. it was too weak to stay in the cola.

45. Which of the following statements is not true
about soft drinks? They have

A. a variety of acids

B. nutritional value

C. flavourings and colourings

D. many chemicals.

 

 

 

 

 

 

46. Why is it not advisable to take cold drinks after meals?
A. Digestive enzymes can only function at

K.C.P.E REVISION 114

37° C.

B. They ferment the food.

C. They disturb the process of digestion.

D. The body temperature is lowered.

 

 

 

 

47. What major problem does fermented food cause in the body?
A. It produces various gases.

B. It goes to all parts of the body.

C. It affects the circulation of blood.

D. It leads to poor health.

48. The writer suggests that artificial juices are

A. worse than sodas

B. made from special fruits

C. also to be avoided

D. found only in shops.

49. What does the word “courage” as used in the passage mean?
A. bravery

B. strength

C. determination

D. capability

50. According to the writer

A. we cannot stop drinking soda even if we wanted to
B. fresh juices and plain water are good when used early in life
C. a little soda is not completely bad for health
D. people should stop drinking soda altogether.

YOUR INDEX NUMBER YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMANTION COUNCIL

 

KCPE 2004

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION
Time: 40 minutes

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

 

The candidate has potential, the account reads better and punctuation and paragraphing are good. Has a variety of sentence structures and good sentence and paragraph connectors, the candidates confuses
“block” with ‘bloke” that is slang for “man” and which almost always collocates with “old” In “old bloke” with the Idiom “chip off the old block” that is applied to a son that exhibits similar characteristics as those of the father, teachers need to teach the differences especially in homonym and homophones,
Mark awarded; 38

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2004

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE

Questions 1 to 15

For questions 1 to 15, select the best alternative to fill the blank spaces.

Our future diet 1 this small planet 2 contain a lot less meat, and a lot of new foods we haven’t even heard of 3 . If we think of the produce people grow and eat, we think of only a few 4 of grains or fruits, or vegetables, and probably we 5 those are the only ones that are available around the world. 6 Kenyans today only eat food taken from about twenty different crops, yet there are at 7 twenty thousand edible kinds of plants in the world. Many of 8 offer alternatives that are better for our health than a lot of the meals we eat now.
Most of us, for 9 , have eaten only one or two varieties of potatoes, 10 Latin American farmers grow up to fifty different types. Many are 11 suitable for our 12 and offer good nutrition.

Scientists are working to develop new food crops to 13 new needs. Some of these new crops 14 developed because they are easier to grow than existing ones, 15 because they are more resistant to disease.

 

1. A. in B. on C. at D. over
2. A. must B. would C. should D. will
3. A. yet B. ever C. still D. anyway
4. A. variety B. kinds C. type D. numbers
5. A. suppose B. suspect C. guess D. trust

For questions 16 to 18, choose the word that
least fits into the group.

16. A. cutlery

B. crockery

C. bedding

D. shirts

17. A. glance

B. gaze

C. stare

D. glare

18. A. grab

B. hold

C. touch

D. seize

For each of questions 19 and 20, choose the alternative which best completes the statement given.

19. Only after everyone has paid the fare

A. the bus will leave.

B. then the bus will leave.

C. and the bus will leave.

D. will the bus leave.

20. Musa asked her

A. where are you going.

B. where was she going.

C. where she was going.

D. where she is going.

In questions 21 and 22, choose the sentence that is correctly punctuated.

21. A. You don’t believe that. Do you?

B. I don’t like it’s colour.

C. Jane said, “The young man is my brother.”

D. She is asking whether you are hungry?

22. A. Your’s was accepted.

B. “Do you like travelling?” She asked.

C. Ipu bought the following items: sugar, flour, bread and honey.
D. What a surprise?

 

 

 

 

 

Read the information below and use it to answer questions 23 to 25.

 

K.C.P.E REVISION

120

There are six rooms arranged in a row and

numbered 1 to 6. Since the walls separating the rooms are weak, smells and noise can pass from one room to the one immediately next to it. Now, there are six girls who will get one room each. Those with the same hobbies will get rooms next to each other.
Wakesho likes painting. Auma and Nyaboke like baking. Chepkirui likes reading and must get room number 5 because it has book shelves. Wambui, Rahma and Auma like singing and practice quite often. Chepkirui requires silence in order to do her reading. Rahma hates the smell of baking and fresh paint.

23. Which of the rooms should be allocated to those who like singing?
A. 1, 3, 6

B. 2, 4, 6

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 2, 3, 4

24. Which room should Nyaboke get?

A. No. 1

B. No. 2

C. No. 3

D. No. 4

25. Who should occupy room number 6?

A. Wakesho

B. Auma

C. Rahma

D. Wambui

Read the following passage and then answer questions 26 to 38.

Marioshoni, as Waiyaki’s school was called, was well known in the country. Already it had a history. It had been Waiyaki’s idea and even now he could not understand fully how his idea had borne fruit so quickly. He saw it as something beyond himself, something arranged by fate. Event had followed event in quick succession, quickening the rhythm of life in the hills.

His father’s death had almost numbed him. He could not tell why, but Chege’s death, though not unexpected, came as a shock to him. It seemed unfair that Chege should have died at that particular time. He should have lived longer. And Waiyaki had gone on like a man drugged, not knowing what to think or do. He had all of a sudden become a grown man. He was now on his own. It was while he was in this mood that the idea of schools had come to him. But what could he do, he being so young? And what had happened meant that he would never go back to school himself. His time to work and serve the people had come.

Waiyaki regarded starting schools through self-help efforts as a kind of mission. It was a vision which he followed with hope and passion. He travelled from ridge to ridge, all over the country of the sleeping lions. He found a willing people. Yes, the ridges were beginning to awake. The trees, the birds and the paths he trod, all knew him, knew a man determined to serve his country.

Schools sprang up like mushrooms. Often a school was nothing more than a shed hurriedly thatched with grass. This work of building together was a tribute to the people’s way of co-operation. It was a determination to have something of their own making, fired by their own imagination.

The schools were overflowing with children, hungry for education. A class held many children crammed together. Their teachers, any who could be grabbed from Siriana, sat in front and the expectant little eyes looked up to them, wanting to drink in this learning. And mothers and fathers waited, expecting their children to come home full of learning and wisdom. People would feel proud, very proud, when a son or daughter came in the evening clutching exercise books and pencils.

The children caught the enthusiasm of their parents. Perhaps they saw they were the hope and the glory of the society.

Waiyaki was the headteacher of Marioshoni. He went there in the morning and went back home in the
evening. It was nearly always like that. He liked it. The walk gave him time to think about many of the

26. From the first sentence we can tell that Waiyaki’s school was
A. popular.

B. special.

C. famous.

D. historical.

27. What was surprising about Marioshoni?

A. What began as an idea soon became a reality.
B. Waiyaki saw it as something difficult to understand.
C. It became known as Waiyaki’s school.

D. Everything happened quite unexpectedly.

28. The expression “in quick succession” means

A. many events were quickly witnessed.

B. the rhythm of life changed suddenly.

C. an event taking place before another ends.
D. things happening rapidly one after the other.

29. Which of the following statements best explains how Waiyaki felt after his father’s death?
A. shocked and angry

B. confused and angry

C. fatherless and anxious

D. sad and unhappy

30. Why was Waiyaki at first hesitant to begin a school?
A. He did not know what people would think.
B. It was only an idea after all.

C. He thought he was too young.

D. It was something no one else had done.

31. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “the ridges were beginning to awake”?
A. People realised they should not continue sleeping.
B. People saw the need to build schools.

C. People accepted Waiyaki’s message willingly.
D. People woke up when they heard the news.

3 2.Why is the starting of schools compared to mushrooms?
A. It shows that many schools were soon built.
B. Maybe some had the shape of mushrooms.

C. It means that schools were everywhere.

D. Maybe they were roughly constructed.

 

33. The people were eager to co-operate because

A. Waiyaki had explained to them about the need for schools.

K.C.P.E REVISION 123

B. it was not possible to get help from other sources.
C. Waiyaki had found them a willing people.

D. it was a way of starting something of their own

34. Which of the following is not true about Waiyaki?
A. He had greatly depended on his father.

B. He did not want to go back to school.

C. He convinced people to work together.

D. He was committed to serving his community.

35. How do we know that teachers were difficult to get?
A. Schools were just being established.

B. Very few had been trained at that time.

C. They employed any they could get from Siriana.
D. Too many children were crammed together.

36. The children could best be described as

A. very enthusiastic.

B. very curious.

C. extremely knowledgeable.

D. extremely delighted.

37. In what way was walking to and from school

useful to Waiyaki?

A. He was used to walking from ridge to ridge.

B. He had time to think about how to solve problems.
C. He did not have other means of transport.

D. He probably enjoyed walking as an exercise.

38. Which of the following would be the best
summary for this passage?

A. Actions speak louder than words.

B. Unity and strength.

C. Where there is a will there is a way.

D. The pen is mightier than the sword.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

The children’s Act seeks to cater for children’s interests by making provisions for their protection by parents. This, however, is only one among the objectives of the Act. In the Act, parents are expected to exercise parental responsibility. This means all the duties, rights, powers and authority which a parent has over a child.

Who, according to the Act, has parental responsibility? More than one person may have parental responsibility for the same child at the same time. But a person who acquires that responsibility for a child at anytime, shall not cease to have it. The responsibility cannot be surrendered or transferred to another individual. The Act, however; allows for some or all the parental responsibility to be exercised by another person on the parent’s behalf.

Parental responsibility can, in some cases be withdrawn by an order of court. A child can apply to have parental responsibility terminated. This could be in cases of child abuse including sexual abuse, physical violence and denial of basic human needs.

All parents have a duty to maintain a child and in particular to provide the children with a balanced diet in order to ensure that they grow up healthy and strong and do not succumb to illness. Children are also entitled to adequate shelter, clothing and medical care. Knowledge is the key to success and parents should make sure their children attend school.

It is possible for a person to have the care and control of a child without legal parental responsibility. Such a person is expected to do what is reasonable in order to safeguard and promote the child’s welfare.

The Act has reserved some basic rights to parents, these include the right to give parental guidance in religious, moral, social and cultural values. The way a child is brought up will to a large extent depend on what the parents believe in. They must ensure that their beliefs are in the best interests of the child. Parents have the right to determine the name of a child. While different cultures ascribe to a variety of naming methods, a parent has the final say on the name of a child.

39. What is the purpose of the Children’s Act?

A. It protects both children and their parents.
B. It tells parents exactly what they ought to do.
C. It is to ensure that children’s rights are known and protected.
D. It encourages people to take interest in children’s welfare.

40. According to the Children’s Act, parents

A. should exercise parental responsibility.

B. may exercise parental responsibility.

C. will exercise parental responsibility.

D. shall exercise parental responsibility.

41. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. No more than one person can exercise parental responsibility.
B. Only one’s own parents can have parental responsibility.
C. Parents have authority, duties and powers over others.
D. One who gets parental responsibility cannot surrender or transfer it.

42. Which of the following can replace the word “cease”?
A. lose

B. stop

C. end

D. deny

43. The Children’s Act allows parents to ask other people to
A. look after their children on their behalf.

B. look up to their children on their behalf.

C. take up some of the responsibilities.

D. take over some of their children.

44. Parental responsibility can, in some cases, be withdrawn by an order of a court. This implies that
A. courts do not favour parents.

B. parents can take their children to court.

C. parents can easily get a court hearing.

D. courts can take away the rights of irresponsible parents.

 

 

 

 

 

 

45. What can children do if parents mistreat them?
A. They can take them to court.

B. They can stop being their children.

K.C.P.E REVISION 126

C. They can run away from home.

D. They can go to other relatives.

46. What would happen if children were denied a balanced diet?
A. They would grow thin.

B. They would get sick easily.

C. They would accuse their parents.

D. They would constantly be hungry.

 

47. Which of the following constitute basic needs?
A. Food, family, education and medical care.

B. Clothes, air, doctors and teachers.

C. Food, medicine, health and housing.

D. Clothes, food, medical care and housing.

48. “Knowledge is the key to success” means

A. Education makes people powerful.

B. Educated people do well in life.

C. Education can make you get a job.

D. Educated people can open doors easily.

49. Why is parental guidance important in a child’s upbringing?
A. It is a right parents have been given.

B. It is important for a child to have moral values.

C. It means that a child will have good beliefs.
D. It determines the kind of person the child becomes.

50. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
A. Protection of children’s rights.

B. Parental responsibility.

C. The basic needs of children.

D. The interests of children.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2005

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION

 

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

 

 

 

 

 

You have 40 minutes to write your composition.

 

 

 

 

I had never been told such a story before. I laughed until tears came to my eyes. This is the story

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 129

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL

KCPE 2005

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE
Questions 1 to 15

Fill each blank space in the following passage with the best
alternative.

Every day you make hundreds of decisions. Today you decided 1 to get up, what to wear, what to eat and whether or not to talk to a 2 person. You started 3 decision-making pattern when you were young and 4 use that same pattern today. 5 most people, this decision-making pattern is successful.
Poor decision-makers, 6 , usually do not realise that their decision-making process 7 inadequate.
Every time we have to make a decision, we must 8 understand why the decision is necessary. We 9 then consider the possible alternatives and select the 10 one. Our 11 in solving problems also increases if we include the opinions of others.
Some people 12 making decisions because they are afraid they will 13 a mistake. Their goal is to make the perfect decision, 14 there is no such thing as the perfect decision. Every decision is a risk. Good decision-makers know that almost 15 decision can be changed.

1. A. if B. whether C. when D. why
2. A particular B. another C. different D. special
3. A any B. some C. this D. a
4. A usually B. probably C. certainly D. rarely
5. A. For B. In C. To D. With
6. A. therefore B. thus C. moreover D. however
7. A. may be B. must be C. would be D. will be
8. A really B. quite C. fully D. somehow
9. A must B. might C. can D. could

In questions 16 to 18, choose the correct alternative to fill the blank space in each sentence.

16. The food was delicious that we asked for more.
A. quite

B. too

C. so

D. very

17. My grandfather never tires of reading his
book.

A. black big old

B. black old big

C. big black old

D. big old black

18. Hard though he hit the coconut, he not break it.
A. could

B. would

C. might

D. should

In questions 19 to 21, choose the alternative that
means the same as the underlined words.

19. The boxer gave in in the final round.

A. won

B. surrendered

C. fell

D. struggled

20. Where did you put up last night?

A. reside

B. live

C. stay

D. dwell

21. They made away with a lot of goods.

A. stole

B. took

C. bought

D. Carried

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

In questions 22 and 23, choose the alternative that means the same as the given sentence.

K.C.P.E REVISION 132

22. I asked her, “What are you doing now?”

A. I asked her what are you doing now?

B. I asked her what she was doing now.

C. I asked her what was she doing then?

D. I asked her what she was doing then.

23. I hardly slept last night.

A. I did not sleep last night.

B. I had little sleep last night.

C. I could not sleep last night.

D. I had a little sleep last night

For questions 24 and 25, arrange the sentences given to form a sensible paragraph.

24. (i) It is unusual for one to talk to such people using complicated language.
(ii) These should also be the features of a letter to a relative or friend.
(iii) Writing a letter to a relative or friend is like conversing with them.
(iv) In a conversation, one uses friendly and simple language.
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

B. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

C. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

D. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

25. (i) A lot of young players unfortunately do not know that team work is important.
(ii) It is important for young players to accept the advice of their coach.
(iii) They must, however, learn that “I” has to be replaced by “we”.
(iv) Often the things pointed out during practice affect the outcome of the game.

A. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

B. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

C. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) D (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

Read the passage below and answer questions 26 to 38.

In the middle of a great jungle, there lived a great lion who was also a great king. He ruled the jungle so wisely that all the animals loved and obeyed him. That’s why at the beginning of every year, they all came to him to pay their rent. They came from the rocks, caves, trees, holes, rivers, nests, mountains and valleys. They paraded before the king as he decided how much rent each would pay. The amount was always fair and no one ever complained – no one but the crocodile who brought nothing but his bad temper.
A new year was here and the animals of the jungle all came to pay their rent. As usual the crocodile was unwilling to comply, but the king was unwilling to relent and insisted that the crocodile pay the ten shillings due for living in the water. Since the king was kind he gave the crocodile until later in the year to pay his rent. The crocodile then went on his way, grumbling. The last animal to come before the king was the tiniest monkey, whom the king required to pay ten cents for living in the tallest tree. The monkey paid his rent promptly and was soon on his way home.
When he reached the end of the path near his palm tree by the river, he had an awful feeling in the pit of his stomach. He was about to scamper up his tree when he was overcome by a great sense of fear. “Is anyone there?” he timidly asked, hoping that no one would answer. He peered into the dark grass and there, peering back, were the two most dreadful eyes in the jungle.
Just then, the crocodile responded, “It’s your friend the crocodile. I have been waiting for you as I want to give you a ride across the river. I have something nice to show you.” The monkey’s mind went blank and before it began working again he was hunched wetly on the crocodile’s back, floating out into the wide river. His teeth were chattering and his tail was tangled in three big knots. Near the middle of the river, the crocodile began to submerge himself into the water. The only dry place left for the poor frightened monkey to sit was on the crocodile’s head, right around the corner of his mouth. It was at this moment that the crocodile demanded ten shillings for the ride, knowing very well that the monkey could not raise it. The monkey informed the crocodile that he had just paid his last ten cents as rent. The crocodile was adamant. He threatened that if the monkey did not pay, he would eat him up.
The monkey then had a brilliant idea. He remembered just how much crocodiles love to eat kidneys. He giggled in excitement and told the crocodile, “Oh, what a shame! It just goes to show how little you know about monkeys.” When the crocodile inquired what he meant, the monkey asked, “Do you really want to eat me without my kidneys? Don’t you know that Mondays are monkeys’ washing day, and as such, I have washed and polished my kidneys and left them in the sun to dry?” He further explained that he had been about to go up his tree to pop them back in when he encountered the crocodile. The monkey went on to add that if the crocodile returned him to his tree, he would get the kidneys.
The crocodile, though large in body, was small in brain. When he thought of the newly washed monkey kidneys – all pink, fresh, shiny and tasty looking, he could not resist. He therefore agreed to the monkey’s request. After getting back to his tree, the monkey sweetly told the crocodile, “Before I come down, open your mouth wide to receive my kidneys. They will give you appetite to eat the rest of me.” The crocodile obliged and the monkey threw down the biggest and hardest coconut he

26. Which of the following statements best summarises the information about king lion in the first paragraph?

A. The king ruled the animals of the jungle with great wisdom.
B. The king was only interested in the rent paid by the animals.
C. The king ruled so well that all the animals lived in harmony.
D. The king was loved by all the animals of the jungle.

27. The crocodile usually paid his rent

A. at the beginning of the year.

B. at the end of the year.

C. at no time in the year.

D. at a different time in the year.

28. What is the similarity between the lion and the crocodile?
A. Both are unwilling to give in to each other’s wishes.
B. The crocodile is as fierce as the lion.

C. Both accept that the crocodile should pay 10 shillings rent.
D. The lion and the crocodile are both big animals.

A. No animal ever complained about the rent.
B. He was loved by all the animals.

C. He allowed the crocodile more time to pay his rent.
D. He was a great wise king.

30. Why do you think the monkey’s mind went blank?
A. He was confused.

B. He was terrified.

C. He was excited

D. He was troubled.

31. The crocodile submerged himself in the water because he wanted to
A. scare the monkey.

B. be paid for the ride.

C. eat the monkey.

D. drown the monkey.

 

 

32. The monkey giggled in excitement because he
A. realised the crocodile knew little about monkeys.
B. knew he was safe without his kidneys.

 

29. Which of the following statements shows that the king was kind?
K.C.P.E REVISION

 

135

C. remembered how crocodiles love kidneys. D had discovered a way to save himself.

37. What is the lesson learnt from this story?

33. What does the phrase “small in brain” as used in the passage mean?
A. ignorant

B. foolish

C. innocent

D. forgetful

34. The words “he could not resist” suggest that the crocodile was
A. anxious.

B. weak.

C. hungry

D. greedy.

35. Which of the following best describes the monkey?
A. He was clever.

B. He was trusting.

C. He was dishonest.

D. He was cruel.

36. On which day of the week was the crocodile unable to swallow anything?
A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Tuesday

D. Wednesday

A. We should always pay our rent.

B. We should forgive others.

C. We should use our brains.

D. We reap what we sow.

38. What would be the most appropriate title of this passage?
A. A false friendship.

B. The crocodile meets his match.

C. Monkey’s tempting kidneys.

D. Ride across the river.

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 136

39. Why do people love gifts?

A. Gifts make people excited.

B. They make people know they are appreciated
C. They make people important.

D. Gifts are used to mark important occasions.

40. The expression “those close to us” means

A. our relatives and friends.

B. those who live very near our homes.

C. people we meet every day.

D. people who are very interested in us.

41. Passing an examination is given as an example of
A. a great achievement through effort.

B. things that motivate people to celebrate.

C. what happens when people are rewarded.

D. occasions when one may receive gifts.

42. Which of the following best summarises the information in the second paragraph?
A. Boys and girls should not accept free things.
B. It is important to find out why someone is giving us gifts.
C. Some people give gifts with good intentions.

D. Wicked people use gifts as a way of exploiting children.

43. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to “lure”?
A. attract

B. trap

C. cheat

D. confuse

44. Which of the following statements is true according to the third paragraph?
A Kind and generous people can pretend.

B. Some people can strike mercilessly.

C. Anyone can be deceived through gifts.

D. Expensive gifts are very dangerous.

45. Why do needy people easily become victims of abuse?
A. They may assume that those willing to meet their needs are really concerned about them.
B. They become very grateful and do not ask questions.
C. It is wrong to disobey someone who has been so good to you.
D. It is not always easy to know what they should do.

46. Which of the following is not true about the principal’s wife?

K.C.P.E REVISION 137

A. She was not sure why the man was bringing them gifts.
B. She knew the man had some evil intentions.
C. She did not want free things from strangers.
D. She gave her husband very good advice.

47. How can we best complete the sentence beginning,
“If he had accepted the gifts….”

A. he would have saved his money.

B. he would have hurt his wife.

C. he would have been found guilty of corruption.
D. he would have found it difficult not to admit the girl.

48. Why does the writer advise people to be contented?
A. Those who are not can be misled easily.

B. They can never have everything they want.
C. Being discontented can make one unhappy.
D. It is the only way to enjoy life.

49. We should reject gifts given with bad intentions politely because

A. we might get into trouble if we don’t.

B. it is important to practise good manners.

C. some people could harm us if we are rude.

D. the giver may have good intentions after all.

50. Why does the writer suggest that we should consult other people when in doubt?
A. It is very important to know what others think.
B. Other people may sometimes help us to think.
C. It is never easy to know what to do.

D. Other people may have useful knowledge and experience.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

Can you recall the last time you received a gift? How did you feel? We all love gifts and it is exciting to give or receive one. Gifts motivate us and remind us that there are still people who care about us.
Parents, relatives and friends give us presents on important occasions. When we pass an examination, for example, those close to us may want to reward our efforts by showering us with gifts. Gifts strengthen relationships and encourage people to do well.
Gifts take many forms. Someone could offer to give you a ride to school or buy you lunch. Another may give you a watch, a goat or clothes. There have been cases of school boys and school girls being allowed to travel free of charge in buses and matatus. All these are examples of gifts and they may be given out of pure motives. However, some people often give gifts with evil intentions. Wicked people have used gifts to lure children whom they have then sexually abused or exploited in other ways.
Young people as well as adults can be deceived by those who pretend to be kind and generous. Such people may give expensive gifts intending to win the trust and friendship of those they are planning to exploit. Then, when they think they can get what they have been waiting for, they strike mercilessly.
Those who easily become victims are the poor and needy. Such people become very grateful when someone shows them concern and offers to provide what they need most. Feelings of gratitude may make a person do regrettable things. For example, if someone who has shown you great kindness asks you to do something which you know is wrong, you may find it very difficult to refuse. If a person pays your school fees and buys you clothes, you may find it impossible to resist his sexual advances. So when a person is too good to you, ask yourself what his or her motives are.
A principal of a certain college began receiving a very generous visitor in his house. The visitor was very frequent and would come loaded with gifts. After some time, the principal’s wife started
becoming suspicious. Why does this person give us so many things, yet we don’t know each other well? She asked herself. She suggested to her husband that every time the person brought them things, they should calculate their value and send somebody to pay for them the following day. The man had a shop near the college. He would take the money reluctantly. After three months, he came to the principal’s house accompanied by his daughter. He wanted the daughter admitted but she did not qualify. The principal explained why he could not admit her. If he had accepted the “gifts”,….
Be careful. Many people have got into trouble because they accepted gifts without considering who the giver was or what he or she wanted in return. If we are careful, we can save ourselves a lot of heartaches. If you are not sure why someone is giving you a present, reject it politely. You can also consult your parents or older brothers or sisters if you find it difficult to decide. Many people will want to tempt you to accept favours from them. Say “No!” Be contented with what you have. Many of those who go astray want to have things they cannot afford and when someone comes and promises to provide what they long for, they fall in to the trap.

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2006

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION

 

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2006

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE

Questions 1 to 15

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the best

alternative from the choices given.

 

When some people shower us with praise, we feel very flattered 1 we? In our delight, we forget that 2
people may have bad intentions 3 us. Take the story of the crow 4 the fox, for example. The

hardworking crow had managed to snatch a piece of roast meat from the butcher’s. Up she 5 with it into

the branches of a tall tree, intending to enjoy her 6 .

The fox had been watching all this with a watering mouth for he really wanted the 7 piece for

himself. He therefore planned his approach very 8 . “Oh crow,” he said, “your eyes shine 9 than all

the stars. And your neck is 10 beautifully long. Your wings, my friend 11 be more graceful!” The fox continued, “But alas! How unfortunate 12 you were born dumb. I am sure yours would have been a

melodious 13 .” The crow was pleased with the flattery. However, she was annoyed that the fox thought

she could not sing. She therefore wanted to 14 the fox. She opened her mouth to sing and the meat dropped right 15 the waiting mouth of the fox.

 

1. A. do B. don’t C. are D. aren’t

2. A. some B. many C. most D. such

3. A. towards B. to C. against D. for

For questions 16 to 18, select the alternative that best
completes the sentence.

 

16. Kemboi chose to walk the three kilometres to the market it was very hot.

A. because

B. but

C. while

D. though

 

17. “Come first December this year and my sister
two years old.”

A. shall be

B. will be

C. could be

D. should be

 

18. The teacher was very with the pupils who had not done their homework.

A. sad

B. annoyed

C. disturbed

D. sorry

 

For questions 19 to 21, select the alternative that
means the same as the underlined expression.

 

19. Njeri works very hard in spite of the fact that she is very old.

A. although

B. but

C. moreover

D. despite

 

20. Wanyama wanted to make up for the time he had lost.
A. create

B. restore

C. replace

D. recover

 

21. Abdi was in a hurry to wind up the meeting.

A. postpone

B. end

C. leave

D. Stop

 

In questions 22 and 23, choose the alternative that
means the same as the underlined sentence.

 

22. Had it not been for the quick response of the ambulance team, the patient would not have survived.

A. The ambulance team responded quickly and the patient survived.

B. If the ambulance team had responded quickly the patient would have survived.
C. Because the ambulance team responded quickly the patient survived.

D. If the ambulance team responded quickly the

patient would not have survived.

 

23. In a court of law people who have broken the law without knowing it still get punished for the offence.

A. People get punished in a court of law only for breaking the law, deliberately.
B. Whether people break the law or not, they are punished in a court of law.
C. People get punished in a court of law whether or not they were aware of the law they broke.
D. People who get punished in a court of law

neither have broken a law nor are they aware of it.

For questions 24 and 25, choose the best arrangement of the given sentences to make a sensible paragraph.

24. (i) People with diabetes are advised to eat a special diet that will either increase or reduce the sugar levels.

(ii) In one there is excess sugar in the bloodstream while in the other there isn’t enough.

(iii) The disease appears in two different forms.

(iv) Diabetes has become a serious world problem.

A. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

C. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

 

25. (i) Pupils who pass examinations are those who

are both diligent and disciplined.

(ii) Studying involves both discipline and diligence.
(iii) Discipline, on the other hand, requires planned, regular and persistent preparation for lessons as well as continuous revision of work covered.

(iv) Diligence refers to the care, determination and hard work a pupil puts into the study.

A. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

C. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

D. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Read the following passage and answer questions 26 to 38.

Last December, Fulora and her brother Jakobo spent the holidays at their uncle’s home. One thing they loved here was the large space in which they could play as much as they wished. Furthermore, Uncle Samba did not mind their playing all day; much of the housework was done by the househelp.
It was the last day of the holidays and the two had decided to enjoy themselves as much as possible in the little time left. They were too busy playing with a ball to notice the mother hen together with her seven chicks feeding nearby. Suddenly, one of the chicks let out a feeble squeak and lay lifeless. Fulora had thrown the ball which had hit the young bird rather hard.
“Fulora, you have killed it! What will you say?” whispered Jakobo after looking in all directions to ensure no one was watching. Fulora, who was trembling with fear, said she would explain everything to Uncle Samba and apologise. But Jakobo would hear none of it. “If you do that, we shall never be allowed to set foot here again. The best thing to do is hide the chick and pretend nothing has happened.” Fulora nodded in agreement and a deal was sealed. Not a word was to be spoken to anyone about the ball and chick incident.
Little did Fulora realise that she had sold herself into slavery. Whenever Jakobo had any task he did not feel like performing, he demanded that Fulora do it. Any protests from her were met by the words: “The ball and the chick, remember?” Fearing that her shameful act would be exposed, she would carry out the task without further complaint.
Soon Fulora was doing almost all of Jakobo’s work at school and at home. When he saw her doing her own work, he assumed she was idle and immediately came up with a task she had to do. Fed up with this arrangement, Fulora one day made up her mind to free herself from the chains of guilt. She chose a moment when her brother was away and her mother seemed to be in high spirits, and told her everything.
“My dear, I already know about the incident. Uncle Samba told me all about it. He saw everything happen from his bedroom window. I have been waiting to see whether you are as honest as you claim to be.
Now I’m glad you’ve confessed,” Mother said sweetly. “What has upset me, however, is the fact that you have allowed your brother to blackmail you for all this time.” After apologising and thanking her mother for understanding, Fulora felt as if she had suddenly been relieved of a heavy load.
That evening Jakobo came home and demanded that Fulora take off his shoes from his feet. He claimed he had walked for a long distance and was dog-tired. Fulora ignored him. He began his usual threats but this fell on deaf ears.
“Mummy will know today that you murdered Uncle Samba’s chick!” he thundered, walking out of the room.
Seething with anger, Jakobo stormed into the living room where his mother was reading. He tried

D. He was full of fear.

26. What did the children like most about Uncle Samba’s home?
A. All the housework was done by the househelp.
B. They liked spending their holidays there.

C. Uncle Samba did not mind them playing there.
D. It had a large playing space.

27. Why didn’t the children notice the mother hen and her chicks?
A. They were too involved in their game.

B. There was little time left.

C. They had decided to enjoy themselves thoroughly.
D. It was the last day of the holiday.

28. The word “feeble” as used in the passage means
A. dying.

B. soft.

C. weak.

D. slow.

29. Why do you think Jakobo whispered?

A. He could not talk aloud.

B. He thought someone might hear them.

C. He did not want to frighten Fulora.

30. According to the fourth paragraph

A. Fulora sometimes refused to do Jakobo’s work.
B. Jakobo sometimes did his work himself.

C. Fulora became a slave unconsciously.

D. Jakobo met Fulora whenever she protested.

31. Why did Fulora decide to expose the incident?
A. Her mother was in high spirits.

B. Her brother was away.

C. She wanted to reveal everything.

D. She was tired of being blackmailed by Jakobo.

32. Jakobo came up with a task for Fulora when

A. she appeared idle.

B. she tried to do her own work.

C. he had work at school or at home.

D. he saw her working.

had confessed?

A. She had been waiting for a long time for Fulora to confess.
B. She now knew that Fulora was as honest as she had claimed to be.
C. She already knew the whole truth.

D. She now knew Fulora would not be blackmailed anymore.

 

 

34. Why did Fulora ignore Jakobo when asked to remove his shoes?
A. She knew he was not dog-tired.

B. She was now fed up with his threats.

C. She knew he had no power over her.

D. She was used to his usual threats.

35. Jakobo uses the word “murdered” to suggest that Fulora killed the chick
A. and kept quiet.

B. deliberately.

C. with the bail.

D. carelessly.

36. Which of the following best explains why Jakobo was seething with anger?
A. His sister had betrayed him.

B. He tried to speak but words deserted him.

C. He thundered out of the room.

D. His sister had refused to carry out his instructions.

37. In the last paragraph, why didn’t Jakobo’s mother “know what to say”? She knew
A. Jakobo was blackmailing his sister.

B. she hadn’t done any work.

C. Jakobo’s performance hadn’t really improved.
D. that the classteacher was ignorant.

38. The most important lesson we learn from this story is that
A. it is always good to be honest.

B. blackmailing others is wrong.

C. mistreating one’s sister is unfair.

D. it is always wrong to hide things.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

There is no doubt that the taste, flavour and appearance of food have great influence on our desire for the food, or appetite. Most foods can be made more attractive by adding a wide range of spices, which also stimulate the flow of digestive juices and consequently improve digestion.
In many communities today, spices are used in much smaller quantities and are not considered as important as they were a hundred years ago.
Back then, most people did not have as wide a range of food as we have today. For this reason, large quantities of spices were essential to give variety to the monotonous salty flavour of food. In addition, spices were also used for medicinal purposes. Common ailments such as influenza and mild stomach upsets were dealt with using different kinds of those food additives.
Spices were probably first introduced to different parts of the world by Arab merchants; indeed Arabia was for a long time regarded as the home of spices. However, in actual sense, most of the spices first came from Southern India and the Moluccas or Spice Islands.
Spices originate from plants and can be classified according to the part of the plant from which they are derived. We have fruit spices, of which pepper is the most widely-used. Most of us probably associate pepper with that hot, stinging feeling which some people love, It is, however, important to note that there are different varieties of this spice, some of which have no “hotness” at all. Seed spices are made from ground plant seeds. These kinds normally add more colour than flavour to food, the best known being mustard.
The buds and stigmas of certain plants can be dried and ground to give us flower spices. These give our food a strong aroma and a desirable taste. Cloves are the best known in this category. The bark of some plants is removed and prepared to make bark spices such as cinnamon which is used to flavour cakes. Lastly, the lowest part of the plant, the root also contributes to the world of spices by giving us root spices. These are also known for their medicinal value. Ginger is the best-known root spice.
Today, spices are packed and sold under different trade names, and some are mixed to come up with a blend. It is therefore advisable to know the ingredients of that packet of spices you want to buy to avoid wasting your money on a spice you did not intend to have on your table.

39. Digestive juices are important because they improve our
A. appetite.

B. digestion.

C. range of spices.

D. desire for food.

40. From the passage we learn that the taste, flavour and appearance of food
A. make it more attractive to us.

B. determine our choice of spices.

C. influence our appetite.

D. are important aspects in our diet.

41. Which of the following does not explain why spices were used more frequently a hundred years ago?
A. The food was monotonous then.

B. People had a limited variety of food.

C. Spices were also used for medicinal purposes.
D. Spices added a new taste to common food.

42. According to the passage, Arab merchants

A. traded in spices.

B. came from Southern India.

C. stored and blended spices.

43. “Derived” as used in the passage means:

A. found.

B. removed.

C. obtained.

D. produced.

44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “monotonous” as used in the passage?
A. unpleasant.

B. boring.

C. common.

D. tasteless.

45. Pepper is given as an example of a

A. hot stinging feeling.

B. fruit spice.

C. widely-used spice.

D. spice some people love.

B. They do not add flavour to food.

C. They can be found on the ground.

D. They make food more attractive.

47. How are cloves similar to cinnamon?

A. They are both from buds and stigmas.

B. They are used to flavour cakes.

C. They are the best-known spices.

D. They both add flavour to food.

48. Which of the following is true of root spices? They
A. are the lowest part of the plant.

B. must be dried first.

C. can cure some illnesses.

D. are a type of ginger.

49. Why is it necessary to know the ingredients of packed spices before buying them?
A. You might waste your money.

B. You need to know if they are mixed.

C. Spices are sold under different trade names.
D. To avoid purchasing what you did not intend to.

50. What do we learn about spices from this passage?
A. Some do not change the taste of food.
K.C.P.E REVISION 151

B. Most of them are blends.

C. Most of them are grown outside Africa.

D. Some are made from plants.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2007

ENGLISH S

 

As soon as the bell for break rang ,I rushed out of the classroom to look for my friends. I was eager to tell them the story

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 152

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The candidate displays some mastery of the language. The account is generally captivating to read and the plot is well execut ed.

Yet there are glaring flaws in the composition. The take-off is faulty. The candidate addresses the reader rather than the friends. There is no mention of the friends reaction. I t i s assumed the story we are reading is what was told to the friends at some other time. This is not correct.
The candidate has not quite mastered the use of direct speech and fails in the perennial trap of misusing English idioms. Some spelling and punctuation errors are also evident.
Mark awarded, 34.

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL

KCPE 2007

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE
Questions 1 to 15

 

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the
best alternative from the choices given.

Few people would 1 that physical exercise is important for 2 health. It is not only those who 3 part in competitive sports and games who need to exercise 4 . Our bodies are 5 in such a way that we tend to become weak and lazy 6 we remain inactive over long periods of time. The benefits of exercising are 7 . First, we feel a sense of freshness and fitness as we move 8 doing our daily duties. In addition, the circulation of blood 9 our bodies is improved. Our immune system is boosted so we don’t get ill very often. 10 , we are able to endure longer periods of 11 work without feeling exhausted. Our digestive system is also improved hence our bodies get maximum 12 from the food we eat. Vigorous exercise done at least twice a week will enable us to enjoy these benefits. 13 , there is need to consult a doctor 14 a person who is experienced in physical training before starting an exercise 15 since our bodies differ in the type of activities each of us can comfortably do.

 

1. A. reject B. oppose C. refuse D. deny

2. A. proper B. nice C. good D. full
K.C.P.E REVISION 155
3. A. take B. get C. play D. have

In questions 16 and 17, choose the best arrangement of the given sentences to make sensible paragraphs.

18. Atieno has been married a long time. She got

16. (i) They found it hard to survive.

(ii) Mr. and Mrs. Onyancha were poor and humble.
(iii) A little cassava and some porridge was their staple diet.
(iv) There was hardly ever enough food in their home.

married years old.
A. because

B. as

C. when

D. since

she was twenty-three

A. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

B. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

C. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

D. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

17. (i) She told of how people first came onto the Earth.
(ii) We really enjoyed listening to her.

(iii) She also told stories about giants and strange creatures.
(iv) Ahmed’s grandmother loved to tell stories

A. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

B. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

D. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

In questions 18 to 20, choose the alternative that
best fits in the blank space.

19. I could not sleep I was very tired.

A. although

B. but

C. also

D. and

20. They are very kind to me. They treat me
their own child.

A. like I was

B. like I were

C. as if I were

D. as if 1 was.

 

 

 

For questions 21 and 22 choose the alternative that means the same as the underlined sentences.

K.C.P.E REVISION 156

21. Not only did they come late, but they were also untidy.
A. They were either late or untidy.

B. They were late and untidy too.

C. They were untidy because they were late.

D. They were neither punctual nor untidy

22. Lydia said she would soon be fourteen.

25. Our teacher told us never to despair.

A. give out

B. give up

C. give in

D. give way

A. Lydia said ‘she would soon be fourteen’.

B. ‘I will soon be fourteen, Lydia said’.

C. Lydia said, ‘I would soon be fourteen’.

D. ‘I will soon be fourteen,’ Lydia said.

In questions 23 to 25, choose the alternative that means the same as the underlined word.

23. We were astonished by his wisdom.

A. amazed

B. amused

C. excited

D. shocked

24. The orphaned child acquired a new home.

A. discovered

B. received

C. sought

D. found

Read the passage below and then answer questions 26 to 38.

 

Maina’s friend, Odhiambo, began to teach him how to ride a bicycle during the holidays.
Odhiambo

himself had no bicycle, but he could easily borrow one from a mechanic. This mechanic lived in one of
the

rental rooms owned by Odhiambo’s father. During the day, he worked under a tree in front of the house.
Many people brought their bicycles to him to be repaired. Sometimes they wanted the brakes mended or a
punctured tube repaired. Whatever it was, the mechanic was equal to the job. If you passed by any time of the day, you would see him in his brown greasy work clothes putting life into a damaged bicycle. Usually, he

turned the bicycle upside-down with its wheels in the air while he worked on it. A signboard with his nickname, DOCTOR OF BICYCLES, was nailed to the tree.
Besides the bicycles which came to him for repairs, the mechanic also had about five or six of his

own which he hired out for ten shillings an hour. It was one of these Odhiambo borrowed. He did not tell the

mechanic that a learner was going to ride it.

The bicycle was meant for adults and was too high for Maina but he made rapid progress. If he
sat on

the saddle, his feet would not reach the pedals. So he adopted what was called the monkey-style; he rode

standing on the pedals on one side of the triangular frame.

After about one week of practice, Maina was able to ride long distances without falling off. He
was

even able to whistle a song as he rode along. Odhiambo was impressed with Maina’s progress and suggested

that it was time he tried riding on the main road instead of the playing field.

Maina was a little doubtful at first, but he agreed in the end to try one of the less busy roads. To
his

26. From the first paragraph, we can tell that Odhiambo
A. came from a poor family

B. was easy to get along with

C. liked teaching people things

D. lived near the mechanic.

27. The expression “the mechanic was equal to the job” means that the mechanic was
A. willing to do the job

B. the same as other mechanics

C. better than other mechanics

D. highly skilled at the job.

28. Which of the following does not explain why the mechanic was nicknamed ‘Doctor of
Bicycles’?

A. He turned bicycles upside-down.

B. He put life into damaged bicycles.

C. He mended punctures and brakes.

D. He repaired bicycles for many people.

29. If the mechanic had known that his bicycle would be ridden by a learner, he would probably have
A. charged more than ten shillings

B. accompanied the learner

C. refused to lend it out

D. warned the learner.

30. Odhiambo used to get a bicycle without paying any money because
A. he was trusted by the mechanic

B. the mechanic was his father’s tenant

C. he hid information from the mechanic

D. the mechanic had several bicycles.

31. According to the passage, a good rider is one who is able to
A. ride on the main road

B. whistle while riding along

C. use the monkey-style

D. ride over long distances.

32. Which of the following best describes Maina’s attitude as he rode on the main road?
A. pleased

B. proud

C. excited

D. overconfident.

 

 

 

33. The actual cause of Maina’s accident was

A. the fact that he panicked

B. his swerving the bicycle

K.C.P.E REVISION 159

C. his hitting the electricity pole

D. the car that was heading towards him.

34. Odhiambo and Maina decided to report the matter to the mechanic only after
A. they knew they could not escape

B. three spokes were broken

C. failing to mend the wheel

D. the front wheel failed to roll.

35. Maina led the mechanic round and round because he did not
A. know the actual street

B. want his uncle to know the truth

C. know the number of their house

D. want to be taken to the police station.

36. What do the mechanic and the woman in the story have in common? They both
A. have their rights

B. are abusive

C. are ready to fight

D. are unforgiving.

37. The words ‘melted away’ suggest that Maina disappeared from the scene
A. without being noticed

B. very quickly

C. very confidently

D. without making noise.

38. What is the most important lesson to be learnt
from this passage?

A. Pride goes before a fall.

B. Look before you leap.

C. Hurry, hurry has no blessing.

D. Treat others as you would want to be treated.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

 

The way we relate with other people determines whether our lives will be happy or not.
Therefore it is important to choose our friends carefully. If you have the wrong kind of friends, your life could be miserable, full of pain and disappointment. You need to associate with those who love and accept you just as you are. They are likely to bring joy into your life. People who possess the following qualities are the right ones to befriend.

First of all, go for those who respect you. Those who allow you to be yourself, listen to you and care about your feelings. Such people do not do or say things that make you feel small or useless. You see, certain people are so full of themselves that they do not value anyone else’s opinion. They think they are always right. They ridicule and belittle the contributions of others. Keep away from such characters. They are not good for you.

Another characteristic to look for in a friend is trust. Relate with people you can rely on. Such people keep their promises. When you live with others at home, community or school, you soon discover that many of them keep letting you down. I have known people who pretend to be my friends, only to realize later that they were not sincere. They just wanted to use me for their own gain. They took advantage of our relationship. I have occasionally shared some personal information with friends and I have expected them to keep it secret. But the very following day, the story is on everybody’s lips. At such times, I have felt so embarrassed that I have wished the earth would open up and swallow me. So a friend you can depend on is a gem, a rare treasure.

Thirdly, in a world where people are so rude and inconsiderate, you should look for people with good manners. Life is much more enjoyable when we are thoughtful and courteous towards each other. Saying ‘thank you’, ‘sorry’ sounds very simple. However, these wonderful expressions do not exist in many people’s vocabulary. Associate with people who show gratitude and who remember to apologise when they offend you. Avoid the bad-mannered because they will only cause you heartaches.

There is another quality that few people seem to possess. This is a sense of humour. Many of us take life too seriously and focus on the negative side of things. Do not be like that. Gather around you friends with whom you can enjoy a hearty belly laugh, those who can even point out things about you that you can laugh at. Of course you should not laugh at others. No, no! That is unkind. But befriend people who help you to notice the funny side of life.

39. Why should you pick friends wisely?

A. Not everyone can be your friend.

B. They make your life happy or unhappy.

C. Wrong friends can easily mislead you.

D. You cannot blame anyone if you choose unwisely.

40. When you ridicule what others say, you

A. oppose it

B. refuse to listen

C. completely ignore it

D. make fun of it.

41. People who do not respect you may

A. show little concern about your feelings

B. make you small and useless

C. not want to be near you

D. not want to talk to you.

42. Which of the following best explains the meaning of the expression ‘so full of
themselves’?

A. satisfied

B. unkind

C. arrogant

D. unfriendly

43. The writer has been embarrassed by people who
K.C.P.E REVISION

A. share personal information

B. cannot be relied on

C. reveal other people’s secrets

D. always let others down.

44. The writer suggests that many people do not

A. use wonderful expressions

B. know polite words

C. have words like ‘sorry’ in their dictionaries

D. apologise or express gratitude.

45. Laughter in the passage is associated with

A. enjoying life always

B. a sense of humour

C. a life that is not serious

D. amusing yourself occasionally.

46. If you and your friends have different interests, you are likely to
A find the relationship less fulfilling.

B. forget some of your goals.

C. find everything you do boring.

D. stop dreaming about the future.

 

 

47. Why does the writer suggest that we should not laugh at others?

162

A. It may not be funny at all.

B. We should take life more seriously.

C. We should only laugh at ourselves.

D. It may cause embarrassment.

48. Which of the following words can best replace realise as used in the last paragraph?
A. experience

B. have

C. achieve

D. gain.

49. Choose the combination that best describes a
good friend.

A. loving, respectful, reliable

B. reliable, respectable, courteous

C. loving, respectable, funny

D. courteous, funny, respectful

50. Which of the following is the best summary of this passage?
A. People who do not love you should be avoided.
B. You should be very careful when choosing friends.
C. People who respect you will always be helpful.

D. You should only relate closely with those who accept you.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2008

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION

 

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

 

 

 

 

 

You have 40 minutes to write your composition.

BEST COMPOSITION 2008

When we arrived in the school at 3,oclock from the standard eight educational tour, we were surprised to

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

This is one of the pieces that merits the highest honours in this year’s composition writing. It is well conceived and well executed The take off from the given sentence is superb. It involves the reader from the beginning to the end, and one can feel and share the enthusiasm of the candidate and feel that they are present at the venue of the action described. The language is good and apt. In fact such vagueness as “radiants of joy” is likely-to be missed because of the involvement of the reader!
Marks awarded 38

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL

KCPE 2008

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE
Questions 1 to 15

 

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the best
alternative

from the choices given.

 

Police officers raided a home on _1_ outskirts of town yesterday and seized an assortment of electronic
goods.

The men _2_ the police found during the early evening raid were arrested and _3_ in police cells. _4_ suspects
are

being sought.

The police spokesperson told the press that the goods _5_ suspected to have been _6_ from a neighbouring country. Investigations have _7_ started in order to establish the nationalities of the suspects as they have no identification _8_.

It is not clear _9_ the goods were destined for another country, or were to be sold locally. On the local
_10_ the

goods are estimated _11_ten million shillings. The head of the area Criminal Investigation Unit said that the suspects

would soon be _12 _ in a court of law but declined to give further details.

The police _13_ the home following a tip off from _14 _caller who had been suspicious of the people living in
the

home. He told the police that the men stayed indoors _15_ daytime and only went out late in the night.

For questions 16 to 18 choose the alternative that best completes the statement given.

16. The Mutukus are so kind

A. because they always help people

B. as they always help people

C. that they always help people

D. since they always help people.

17. Have they been forbidden

A. to go to town?

B. from going to town?

C. not to go to town?

D. against going to town?

18. Would you have done that job if you

A. had been paid well?

B. were paid well?

C. could have been paid well?

D. would be paid well?

For questions 19 to 21, choose the word that means the same as the underlined words.

19. Most fresh flowers have a delightful fragrance.

C. smell

D. odour

20. Children should not wander in the streets.

A. walk

B. stroll

C. loiter

D. roam

21. She deserved that reward

A. got

B. won

C. earned

D. gained

A. aroma

B. scent
K.C.P.E REVISION

169

For questions 22 and 23 choose the alternative that best completes the sentence.

22. Since Rehema could not get a matatu she travelled home a bus.
A. by

B. on

C. in

D. with

23. When do you expect to in Mombasa?
A. get

B. go

C. reach

D. arrive

For questions 24 and 25, choose the sentence that is correctly punctuated.

24. A. “That is a very hardworking pupil,” the teacher said.
B. “That is a very hardworking pupil,” the teacher said.
C. “That is a very hardworking pupil, “the teacher said.
D. “That is a very hardworking pupil, The teacher said.”

25. A. What long hair you have!

B. He went home early, Didn’t he?

C. Our science teacher sent us to look for grasshoppers flowers frogs and green leaves.
D. Its good to always drink clean water.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 26 to 38.

Murimi drove slowly down the Government Road eager to attend the celebration. Everyone in the car was quiet , thinking about the people who had sacrificed their lives so that Harry Thuku, the freedom fighter, could be set free. Little Naiku was fascinated by Nyanjiru, the woman who had led men, women and children in fighting for freedom, so long ago.
“Papa,” she called her father, “when we gain independence tonight and the white men are gone, who shall lead us then?”
“Ah, a good question, my child,” Murimi replied. “We shall have our own government. A government of Kenyans and by Kenyans. We shall elect our own leaders.”
Naiku asked again, “Will ‘mamas’ lead us too?”

“NO!” Njoroge shouted. “This will be a government of black men. Our government”. “Why men?” Naiku cried angrily.
“When did you ever hear of a black ‘mama’ leading men?” Njoroge asked. “Mama Nyanjiru was a leader of men,” Naiku protested.
“You are right, Naiku,” said Grandpa.

“Even in the forest where we fought the white man, women fought just as bravely. General Muthoni was one of the bravest warriors I ever met – braver than most men I know. Only a fool or a coward says that a woman cannot lead. Of course, they can and will lead.”
At that moment a car with a white driver overtook them and Njoroge shouted, “Settler, settler go home!” Murimi was furious.
“Njoroge!” he said, “how dare you misbehave like that? You will have to answer for it when we get home!”
“Does independence day make you lose your manners? That man is a grown-up, older than even your father”
added Grandpa.
“We did not fight the white men for our independence so that our children can behave like them. You were never brought up to abuse people,” Murimi said angrily. Njoroge was quiet for a long time.
He thought long and hard about his Grandpa’s words. He was sorry for the way he had acted.

26. What celebrations are the people in the car going to attend?
A. The release of Harry Thuku. B The end of the war.
C. The Independence celebrations.

D. The victory over the white men.

27. How many people are traveling in the car?

A. Three.

B. Four.

C. Five.

D. Six.

28. The word ‘fascinated’ as used in the passage means:
A. surprised

B. excited

C. amazed

D. amused.

29. In the passage it is stated that

A. women are not as brave as men

B. some women are braver than some men

C. women are as brave as some men

D. women are braver than men.

30. Choose the alternative that best describes the character of Naiku.
A. inquisitive, respectful and kind
K.C.P.E REVISION

B. inquisitive, cheerful and intelligent

C. respectful, observant and intelligent

D. inquisitive, respectful and intelligent

31. The sentence ‘Only a fool or a coward says that a woman cannot lead’ implies
A. women can lead

B. women should lead

C. women cannot lead

D. women shouldn’t lead

32. What in the passage shows that Grandpa supports women leadership?
A. He tells Naiku the story of Nyanjiru.

B. He praises General Muthoni.

C. He fought alongside women in the forest.

D. He says women have the ability to lead.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

33. Which of the following can best replace word

furious?

172

A. upset

B. enraged

C. annoyed

D. irritated.

34. It is correct to say that Murimi is

A. inconsiderate B strict
C. unkind

D. authoritative.

35. What did Independence mean to Njoroge?

A. People should do whatever they wanted.

B. All white men should go back to their country.
C. Africans could behave like white men.

D. White men did not deserve respect any more.

36. Which of the following is true about the settlers according to the passage?
A. They abused Africans.

B. They beat up Africans.

C. They forced Africans to work

D. They imprisoned Africans.

37. From the last paragraph what is the effect of

Grandpa’s words on Njoroge?

A. He is annoyed.

B. He is thoughtful.

C. He is quiet.

D. He is remorseful.

38. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Women in the struggle for independence

B. Naiku and her family

C. Njoroge and the white man

D. Celebrating Independence.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

Many people all over the world still smoke although it is common knowledge that smoking is dangerous to health. This is because the nicotine found in cigarettes has been proved to be addictive. Many young people get introduced to this habit through peer pressure, by aping their parents or the celebrities they watch on TV advertisements.
Today, smokers give various reasons for maintaining this habit. They say cigarettes are useful stimulants and that they give the smokers something to do with their hands. Perhaps the most important cause for the increase in smoking is that it provides shared experience among the peer group and this continues even after it becomes a settled habit. At what point it actually becomes a habit difficult to shake off, is not possible to tell.
The aggressive campaign through advertisements and advocacy by manufacturers has made things worse. Manufacturers argue that smoking provides employment through tobacco farming, manufacturing industries and contributes directly to the economy through payment of taxes. However, the government spends three times as much for the treatment of smoking related ailments and on rehabilitation of smokers.
The arguments against smoking are very valid. It can at times be very expensive for smokers and has no social advantage. The smoke from smokers is harmful and offensive to those around them (secondary smokers). It also interferes with teamwork since those who smoke keep excusing themselves to go and smoke. We know that tobacco stains the hands of smokers and makes the smokers have bad breath. In addition, it shortens one’s breath, making it difficult for one to participate in activities which demand a lot of energy, such as athletics. But these are minor objections when we consider the damage it can do to one’s health. There is enough evidence that smoking causes bronchitis and heart diseases, both of which can be fatal. It is, therefore, advisable for the young people to distance themselves from this habit if they want to live a healthy life.

39. Why do people continue smoking even when they know it is dangerous?
A. They are addicted to the nicotine.

B. They are introduced to smoking by peers.

C. They want to ape their parents.

D. They want to be like celebrities.

40. Which of the following is not a reason for smoking as given by smokers?
A. It is a useful stimulant

B. It keeps the hands busy.

C. It contributes to the economy.

D. It provides a shared experience.

41. Which of the following can best replace the word ‘aggressive’?
A. tough

B strict

C. offensive

D. serious

42. The word ‘fatal’ as used in the passage means

A. dangerous

B. bad

C. painful

D. deadly.
43. though cigarette manufacturers contribute a lot to the economy through payment of taxes,
A. they spend much more on advertising cigarettes
B. they should consider the damage smoking causes
C the government spends much more treating smokers
D. the government can look for other sources of money.

44. The phrase “smoking has no social advantage’ means it does not
A. give smokers any advantage in the society
B. make smokers popular

C. promote the smoker

D. contribute anything positive to the society.

A. Smokers have bad breath.

B. Smokers have stained hands.

C. Smokers cannot concentrate.

D. Smokers are usually weak.

46. Why is it difficult for smokers to participate in activities like athletics?
A. They have poor health.

B. Athletics is not for smokers

C. They cannot breathe properly.

D. They lack the required energy.

47. Which of the following is true about smokers?

A. They are a burden to the government.

B. They pay taxes to the government.

C. They are employed by the manufacturers.
D. They carry out aggressive campaigns.

48. How does the writer feel about smoking?

A. He hates it.

B. He considers it expensive.

C. He thinks it is harmful.

D. He dislikes it.

49. The last sentence in the passage implies that young people
A. should stay away from smokers

B. will have poor health if they smoke

C. will die early if they smoke

D. will suffer from heart diseases if they smoke

50. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Smokers do not get along with others.

B. People smoke for different reasons.

C. Smoking should be avoided at all costs.

D. Cigarette manufacturers contribute a lot to the economy.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2009

ENGLISH SECTION B: COMPOSITION

 

 

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition on the lines provided and write your composition on the lines provided.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION COUNCIL

KCPE 2009

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE

 

Questions 1 to 15

Rend the passage below. it contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. for each blank space choose the best alternative from the choices given.

 

I was sitting on a beach one day, 1 two children, a boy and a girl, playing 2 the sand. They were hard at work, building 3 beautiful sand castle by the water’s 4 . It had gates and towers and internal passages. 5 when they had nearly finished their 6 a big wave came along and knocked it down, reducing it to a heap of 7 sand. I expected the children to burst into tears, disappointed by what had happened 8 , they ran up the shore away from the water, laughing while 9 hands and sat down to build another castle. I realised that they had taught me 10 lesson. All the things in our lives, all the complicated structures we 11 so much time and energy creating are built on sand. Only our 12 with other people endure. Sooner or later, the wave 13 come along and knock down what we 14 so hard to build up. 15 that happens, only the person who has
somebody’s hand to hold will be able to laugh.

 

 

1. A. seeing B. viewing C. watching D. inspeeling
2. A. on B. over C. in D. about

D. Nakuru, Nyeri and Mumias

Use the informal below to answer questions
16 to 18

Okeyo, Mbura, Karani and Jebet were discussing towns in Kenya which they had visited. Okeyo, Mbura and Karani had visited Nakuru, Mombasa and Mwingi. Jebet and Okeyo had visited Athi River and Mumias. All the children, except Mbura, had visited Nyeri. Only Jebet and Okeyo had not been to Wajir where Mbura comes from.

16. Which one of the following has visited most towns
A. Jebet

B. Karani

C. Mbura

D. Okeyo.

17. Alhi River has been visited by

A. Okeyo and Jebel

B. Okeyo and Mbura

C. Jebet and Karani

D. Jebet and Mbura

18. Which towns has Mbura visited apart from Wajir?
A. Nakuru. Mwingi and Mumias

B. Nakuru, Athi River and Mombasa

C. Nakuru, Mombasa and Mwingi

For questions 19 to 22, choose the alternative that means the same as the underlined word.

19. Nafula quit her job to go to America.

A. abandoned

B. descried

C. ignored

D. left

20. He has been acquitted of a1l the charges.

A. freed

B. forgiven

C. discharged

D. Released

21. The neighbours managed to put out the tire.

A. cool

B. extinguish

C. defeat

D. cover

 

 

 

22. They called off the concert.

A. slopped

K.C.P.E REVISION 179

B. cancelled

C. postponed

D. abandoned

 

For questions 23 to 25 choose the alternative that best completes the sentence.

23. She passed her exams very well, ?

A. is it

B. did she

C. didn’t she

D. isn’t it

24. He may not come, but we will get ready in case he

A. will.

B. does.

C. may.

D. comes.

25. Mwikali is an intelligent pupil, she is a talented singer.
A. nevertheless

B. although

C. moreover

D. and

Read the passage below and then answer questions 26 to 38.

 

The day before Jennifer Bell had made a solemn vow that was going to change her life forever, no one else knew about it yet, but people were going to notice sooner or later. Right then it was a kind of a secret and she loved secrets. Grover Middle School was her sixth new school in eight years. If you are as shy as she was, it was tough to be the new kid all the time. But it was not going to be tough anymore because she had read a book called Instant ways to instant friends. She was starting with lesson number one that day. It said “Change your whole attitude. Think of yourself as somebody that everyone wants to get to know!”

That was right and she was going to have fun and lots of it! Jennifer, aged twelve and a half, had decided to break out of her old, shy nature at last.

Her mother was driving her to school the first day. “Scared?” she asked.
“No way,” she answered, wondering if she had time to lake her mirror out of her purse for one last peek at her hair. She was a little nervous, hut she wasn’t going to admit that to her mum.
“Ihat is the right spirit,” her mother said. “Remember, this may be a new school, but you’ve got a head start on the problem this time.”

Her mother wasn’t thinking about Jennifer’s solemn vow and her book on making friends. Those were the secrets and there was no way Jennifer was going to tell her mother, they were too personal and who tells the secrets to their mothers, anyway?

“I know. I know.” she said. “This is the school where you were a pom pom girl and Dad was in the math club, and you fell in love in the eighth class.”

“Don’t forget your dad was the chairman of the Maths club,” her mother said with a laugh.

 

Jennifer loved to listen to her mum’s bubbly laugh. In fact she decided to imitate it as a part of the new
her.

 

“My mum, the pom pom queen,” Jennifer said, imitating her mum’s laugh. She wondered if it sounded okay, or if it sounded fake. She decided she would have to work on it. “Do you think there is anyone :who still remembers you and Dad?”

26. How many schools had Jennifer attended in the last eight years?
A. Eight

B. Five

C. Twelve

D. Six

27. The phrase “a solemn vow” means

A. serious promise

B. change for better

C. Great step

D. Big decision.

28. Why did Jennifer find it tough to be the new kid all the time?
A. She loved secrets.

B. She was young

C. She was shy

D. She would be noticed.

29. What was Jennifer’s secret?

A. To change her attitude.

B. To make friends with everyone.

C. To practice all the lessons.

D. The special book she had read.

personal.

B. She didn’t want her mother to pick her up.

C. Nobody is really open with their mothers.

D. No one else could know her secrets.

31. What word would best replace the word “attitude” in the passage.
A. Thoughts

B. Views

C. Feelings

D. Behavior

32. the phrase “you’ve got a head start on the problem this time” means
A. She already knows how to behave

B. Her parents had learnt there

C. She had decided to imitate her mother

D. She had acquired the right spirit

33. According to the passage it is correct to say that
A. Jennifer was more prepared for her new school than before:
B. Jennifer wanted to be exactly like her Mum;

 

30. What in the passage shows that Jennifer was not really open with her mum?
A. She thought her secrets were too
K.C.P.E REVISION

 

 

182

C. Jennifer’s Mum got married at a very young age;
D. Jennifer was going to use the Bell family

charm.

34. Why was Jennifer’s mum’s laugh important to Jennifer?
A. It wax going to he part of her new self

B. It made Jennifer’s Mum a queen.

C. It sounded funny to listen to.

D. It made Jennifer as important as her mum.

35. In your own opinion, why did Jennifer change schools?
A. She was too indiscipline to stay in one school.
B. She wanted to go where she was not known.
C. Her parents wanted her to be in their old school.
D. Her parents never stayed in one place for long.

36. Jennifer’s Mum said thev never went to school in the Dark Ages. This implies that
A. they never liked being thought of as old

B. they were not very old

C. they were very young

D. they were known by everyone in the school.

37. Which one of the following best describes

Jennifer’s character?

A. shy, disrespectful, determined

B. intelligent, determined, proud

C. shy, determined, cheerful

D. cheerful, proud, disrespectful

38. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. The journey to a new school.

B. Jennifer the new girl.

C. Jennifer’s new school.

D. Jennifer and her mum.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

Why do we go to school? Why do we strive to get an education? Well, perhaps you will say that we spend so much time and resources in the classroom so as to acquire skills for which society will be willing to pay. This will enable us to earn a living and eventually improve our standard of living. While it is definitely true that education arms us with the necessary tools to be able to put bread on our tables, there are more benefits that come from education.

Education makes you a better person in many ways. It broadens your understanding of various issues that are likely to affect your life. These include health, economic, social and political matters. An educated person is able to independently access information on how to live a healthier life. Similarly, the educated person is empowered to make sound economic and political decisions based on ideas obtained through different channels of information.

Your thinking abilities are also sharpened through education. With the rapid development of technology today it is easier to get information. There is always so much information that it is often difficult to distinguish between the true and the false; the important and the trivial; the relevant and the irrelevant. An educated mind is, however, able to critically examine the information and decide what to make of it.

Society too reaps benefits when its individuals are educated. Where would society be without doctors, teachers, engineers, drivers or lawyers? People in different occupations have their roles to play in making society a belter place to live. Indeed, many inventions that have improved society have sprung from the minds of educated individuals. A truly educated person is always thinking of how to make society better by introducing more effective and efficient ways of doing things.

What of peace and harmony? When we get educated, we learn about other people and their cultures. This makes us understand and accept them as part of our society. In this way, unnecessary conflict is avoided and we become willing to join hands with others in order to achieve certain goals for the good of us all. Evidently, there is so much to be gained from education. It is therefore not surprising that governments and households put aside substantial amounts of their income to spend on books and other support materials, teachers and development of educational facilities.

39. According to the first paragraph, education

A. gives us higher standards of living

B. provides us with our daily food

C. helps us to gain more benefits in life

D. equips us with skills to live better lives.

40. How does education enable an individual to live a healthy life?
A. There is enough in formation on healthy living.
B. One can distinguish between important and trivial things.
C. One can examine the available information properly.
D. There is enough money to go to hospital.

41. The expression “put bread on our tables” implies
A. enjoying life in the society

B. meeting our basic needs

C. providing food for ourselves

D. earning enough money.

42. The word “sound” as used in the passage means:
A. clear

B. perfect

C. clever

D. informed.

43. A sharpened thinking ability enables one to

A. get information more easily

B. get a lot of information

C. choose information wisely

D. decide what to do with information.

44. In society, truly educated individuals

A. are more efficient and effective

B. always think of improving society

C. reap benefits from society

D. invent things from their minds.

45. Peace and harmony are achieved when we

A. understand and accept others

B. avoid unnecessary conflict

C. achieve certain goals

D. join hands with others.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

46. Which of the following is not a result of higher levels of technology according to the third Paragraph?

K.C.P.E REVISION 185

A. Our dunking ability is improved.

B. There is more knowledge available.

C. Getting information is quite simple.

D. Selecting information is more challenging.

 

47. The word “substantial” as used in the passage means
A. large

B. meaningful

C. important

D. reasonable.

48. Educated people

A. are always independent

B. are healthier than others

C. understand things more widely

D. make wiser decisions.

49. From the passage, it is evident that education

A. satisfies our needs

B. is the key to improved life

C. gives us information

D. prevents conflict in society.

50. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Education and Society.

B. Books and Teachers.

C. Education for a Better Society.

D. The Benefits of Education.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2010

ENGLISH
SECTION B: COMPOSITION

 

 

 

 

Time: 40 minutes

 

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. In the spaces provided above write your full Index Number, your Name and the Name of your School.

2. Now open this paper, read the composition subject carefully and write your composition on the lines provided.

Read the passage below . It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the
best alternative from the choices given.

 

Laughter is part of everyday human communication. We can 1 think of a day in our lives that 2 without us laughing or hearing someone laugh. Research has shown that human beings are
3 of laughing even before they are born. 4 , pictures have shown unborn babies smiling

in their mothers’ wombs. Smiling 5

be thought of as the first 6 of laughter.

Humans are not the only 7 capable of laughing. It is 8 that chimpanzees and
gorillas also make sounds and facial expressions that resemble those made by humans 9 laughing. The major difference, 10 , is that human beings can laugh at jokes, it is doubtful
11 animals can see the funny 12 of life. It should, however, be noted that laughter is
not always 13 expression of happiness. Sometimes we laugh to 14 up embarrassment or hide our fears. We may even laugh to 15 annoyance.

1. A. hardly

2. A. comes

3. A. capable

4. A. Really

5. A. must

6. A. sign

7. A. people

8. A. felt

9. A. during

B usually

B. begins

B. thought

B. So

B. should

B. step

B. things

B. assumed

B. while

B. moreover

B. whether

C. never

C. sets

C. fond

C. Truly

C. can

C. attempt

C. creatures

C. imagined

C. through

D. even

D. passes

D. suspected

D. Indeed

D. would

D. display

D. persons

D. known

D. from

K.C.P.E REVISION 188

10. A. nevertheless

B. things

C. anyway

D. however

For questions 16 and 17 choose the option which best fills the blank space in the sentences below.
16. If only I had known I have come to visit you.
A. would
B. could
C. should
D. may.

17. She wrote the report _ ink.
A. in
B. of
C. with
D. by

For questions 18 and 19 choose the sentence that means the same as the underlined one.

18. You should listen to your teachers.
A. You will listen to your teachers.

B. You have to listen to your teachers.

C. You may listen to your teachers.
D. You ought to listen to your teachers.

19. No sooner had we sat than she gave us the news
A. As soon as we sat she gave us the news.
B. The news was given to us after we sat.
C. As soon as she gave us the news, we sat.
D. She gave us the news as we sat.

In questions 20 and 21 choose the best alternative that means the opposite of the underlined word.

20. My grandmother was generous.
A. mean
B. greedy
C. thrifty
D. unkind

21. The pencil is sharp.
A. dull
B. flat
C. blunt
D. smooth

 

 

 

 

 

 

In questions 22 and 23, choose the best arrangement of the given sentences to make sensible paragraphs.
22. (i) All living things depend on energy from it.
(ii) It is the closest star to the earth.

(iii) Life on earth would not be possible without the sun.
(iv) The sun is one among millions of stars.

A. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
B. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
C. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

23. (i) The bride and the bridegroom were on their way.
(ii) The invited guests were chatting excitedly.
(iii) The big wedding was about to begin.

K.C.P.E REVISION 189

(iv) The blaring of vehicle horns was heard from afar.
A. (iv) (i) (iii) (iv)
B. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

C. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

D. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

For questions 24 and 25 choose the sentence which is correctly punctuated.

24. A. “Come here,” she ordered.

B. “Come here, she ordered.”

C. “Come here!” she ordered.

D. “Come here?” she ordered.

25. A. How best can the Environment be conserved.
B. How best can the environment be con served?
C. How best can the environment be conserved!
D. How best can the Environment be conserved?

Read the passage below and then answer questions 26 to 38.

All his life Charles Dickens, one of the greatest novelists in the world, would remember a particular day when he was nine years old, and something his father said. They were out walking together and had stopped, as they often did, to admire a handsome brick house. With its lovely windows and neat lawn, it seemed as grand as a palace.
Then John Dickens told his son that if he worked very hard, someday he might live in that house. The thought took Charles’ breath away. The sort of person who would live in that house would be a distinguished man of taste and education. His father believed that Charles could someday be like that. All he had to do was work hard.
He could not have known on that day how far he would fall and how high he would rise, and that he really would live in that house, and that he would die there.
When Charles looked back on his childhood, these were happy years. They lived in a small house which had a little garden and, across the road, there was a playground for the children. He had a nursemaid, Mary, who comforted his childish sorrows. She also terrified him with blood-curdling horror stories that he adored, though they gave him nightmares. He spent wonderful hours in his tiny room reading from his father set of novels. He went for days imagining himself to be one of his storybook heroes.
But when Charles was ten, his father was transferred to London, and his happy childhood came to sudden end. His father had many wonderful qualities. He worked hard at his job and was loving to his wife and children. He had many friends and loved to invite them to the house in the evening for a bowl of steaming porridge and lively conversation. But he had one terrible fault: he spent more money than he made.

In the ten years of Charles’ life, the family had lived in six different houses, each poorer than the one before. And as the number of mouths to feed kept growing, the family fell deeper and deeper into debt.
When they reached London, Charles was shocked to learn that he would not be sent to school – they couldn’t afford it. He stayed at home and made himself useful by cleaning his father’s boots and minding the younger siblings. His parents seemed to have forgotten him and all his ambitions.
Two days after his twelfth birthday, Charles was sent to work at a factory. From eight in the morning till eight at night, he worked in a dark room, covering pots of boot polish and pasting on labels. Other children worked there, too, but they were not like his old friends. They were poor boys with rough manners who referred to him scornfully as the “young gentleman.”
Worse still, two weeks later his father was arrested for debt and sent to prison, where he had to stay until his debts were paid. His wife and children were allowed to join him there, the whole family living in one room- everyone, that is, except Charles. The factory was too far from the prison for him to get back before the gates were shut at night. So he lived in a cheap boarding house. From Monday morning to Saturday night he was on his own with “no advice, no counsel, no encouragement, no consolation, no support from anyone”.

At night he wandered through the dark city. His clothes were shabby. He had no friends. Instead of growing into a fine gentleman, he had descended to the streets.
The memory of that time was so painful that, even as a grown man, Charles could not walk through those streets without the sting of tears coming to his eyes. And years later, when he became a famous writer, his stories were filled with orphaned and abandoned children, debtors’ prisons, factories, and the grim and degrading lives of the poor.
(Adapted from Charles Dickens, the Man who had Great Expectations by Diane Stanley and Peter
Vennema. Published by Morrow Junior Books: New York, 1993)0501

26. The fact that Charles never forgot what his father told him when he was only nine shows that he
A. had a good memory

B. respected his father

C. took his father’s words seriously

D. was a very good child.

27. From the first paragraph we can conclude that palaces are
A. magnificent buildings

B. places young boys admire

C. homes for special people
D. unique homes.

28. Why did John Dickens tell his son he could live in “that house” one day?
A. To encourage him to think big.
B. He really liked the house.
C. He knew the future was bright.
D. To motivate him to work hard.

29. “The thought took Charles’ breath away” means A. he was unable to breathe
B. he was greatly surprised
C. his father had frightened him
D. his father made him feel sick.

30. What do we learn about Charles’ life from the third paragraph?
A. He fell down and then rose up again.
B. He suffered a lot but later succeeded.
C. He had high hopes in spite of hardships.
D. He lived a life full of disappointments.

31. Which of the following statements is not

true?

A. The stories by Mary were interesting but scaring.
B. Charles did not mind listening to horror stories.
C. The stories Mary told truly fascinated Charles.
D. Perhaps Charles merely pretended to be frightened.

32. How do we know that moving to London affected Charles’ life drastically?
A. Life suddenly become more difficult and

miserable.
B. His father brought friends who ate all the

porridge.
C. There was no time for him to play any

more.
D. He had been very happy in his previous home.

33. Which of the following best describes Charles Dickens’ father’s character?
A. Wonderful, hardworking, loving and friendly.
B. Friendly, caring, hardworking but extravagant.
C. Sociable, lively, generous and loving.
D. Hardworking, jolly, hospitable and carefree.

34. We can tell that Charles loved school because he

K.C.P.E REVISION 192

A. was very disappointed when he wasn’t sent to school
B. enjoyed reading novels in his father’s collection
C. had dreams of becoming a great writer
D. knew it was the only way to achieve fame.

35 How did that society violate children’s rights’? A. By not doing enough to meet their needs.
B. By making them look after young siblings.
C. By making them work in factories.
D. By not punishing irresponsible parents.

36. “Rough manners” means that the boys at the factory
A. did not impress Charles at all
B. were probably naughty and rude
C. did not know how to behave properly
D. made Charles rather uncomfortable.

37. Which one of these pairs of words accurately describe Charles’ feelings when his family moved to the debtors’ prison?
A. unhappy and angry
B. hurt and miserable
C. helpless and desperate
D. lonely and hopeless

38. What would be the best summary of this passage?
A. Accumulating debts is a dangerous habit.
B. Suffering does not mean we cannot succeed.

C. No experience in life is useless.
D. A careless father can cause untold heart aches.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

Laziness can be defined as a state of idleness and unwillingness to spend energy. When we feel lazy, we do not want to do any work. We want to let things stay as they are. Well, sometimes we all enjoy being a little lazy such as on a very cold or hot day. However, if this occurs too often, we need to do something about it. This is not to say that we should always be working so as not to be thought as lazy. We need to rest to refresh our bodies and minds after working for long hours. For us to do our work efficiently and eventually have a successful life, we must learn how to overcome laziness.
How can this monster be overcome? If you feel you have a lot to do, you will probably feel overwhelmed and let laziness overcome you instead of you overcoming laziness. The solution is to break down the huge task into small manageable parts which makes you feel you do not require too much effort. In some cases, the cause of laziness is lack of motivation. This means you simply do not see the reason for carrying out a task. In such cases, it is necessary to think about or visualize the importance of performing your task and achieving your goals. Think about the benefits you will reap if you overcome laziness and take action instead of thinking about difficulties or obstacles. Your imagination has a great influence on your mind, habits and actions. When tempted to be lazy, imagine yourself performing the task easily and energetically. Do this before starting a task or when your mind tells you to abandon what you are doing.
Sometimes laziness leads to procrastination. This is the act of postponing tasks without good reasons. If there is something you have to do now, and you can actually do it, why not just do it and get it over with? An old saying goes, ‘Do not put off until tomorrow what you can do today’.
All in all you need to realize that overcoming laziness is achieved through a series of daily actions and activities. Every time you overcome laziness, you get stronger, more able to achieve your goals and improve your life.
Adapted from ‘Tips to overcome laziness by Remez Sasson. Success consciousness.com

 

 

39. Which one of the following is a sign of laziness?
A. Lacking energy to spend.
B. Wanting to be idle.
C. Refreshing your minds.
D. Enjoying ourselves.

40. Rest differs from laziness in that it
A. does not happen often
B. comes after working for long
C. refreshes our minds and bodies
D. makes us not to be thought lazy.

41. Laziness overcomes you when you
A. feel cold or hot
B. take time to rest
C. you have too much to do
D. feel overwhelmed.

42. Why should we break down huge tasks into small parts?
A. So as to be motivated.
B. In order to use less effort.
C. So as to make tasks manageable.
D. In order to solve our problems.

43. The word monster as used in the passage refers to something that
A. is frightening
B. is discouraging
C. makes life difficult
D. makes us successful.

44. Which of the following statements is not true
according to the passage?
A. Your imagination influences your actions.
B. Obstacles can make you feel lazy.
C. You should not think of difficulties.
D. Habits can influence your imagination.

45. When your mind tells you to abandon what you are doing
A. do not be tempted to be lazy
B. perform the task easily and energetically
C. see yourself performing the task with ease
D. take action that will influence your mind.

46. Refreshing your mind and body means
A. improving your life
B. achieving your goals
C. being able to work for long
D. regaining your lost energy.

 

 

47. Which of the following statements is an example of procrastination?
A. failing to do your assignment
B. being reminded to do your assignment
C. completing your assignment late
D. doing your assignment slowly.

48. The phrase “put off” as used in the passage means
A. discourage
B. postpone
C. cancel
D. refuse.

K.C.P.E REVISION 196

49. Which of the following is the best lesson drawn from the story?
A. Laziness should be overcome.
B. Laziness must be avoided.
C. Laziness ought to be punished.
D. Laziness hinders progress.

50. A suitable title for this passage would be
A. Consequences of laziness.
B. How to overcome laziness.
C. Problems of laziness.
D. All about laziness.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 197

K.C.P.E

K.N.E.C.

KISWAHILI

2003-2010

IKO NA INSHA BORA

K.C.P.E REVISION 198

UBASHIRI WA MASWALI . 2003- 2010. KISWAHILI

2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 20
MADA HUSIKA
• Adabu na
maamkizi 22
• Akisami 24
• Asilimia
• -Amba- 8 6
• Barua
• Dira (u) (p)
• Mambo/umbo 25 26 28
• Enye/-we
• Kiulizi
• Kukanasha 29 18 11,17
• Viambishi vivumishi 16. 25,26 20 23 20,25,27
• kinyume 19,21
• Kiunganishi 8,20 1,22 9,11,29 1,17,24 4,10 5
• Vitenzi 22 30 22
• Kimilikishi 15 14 15
• Kielezi/Vionyeshi 30 21 14,19 25 3 8,1
• Watu/Kazi/Malipo 10,27(malipo)30(watu)
• Hali uk/undogo/kawaida (ukumbwa) (undogo)

• Makundi 28 16,13 27 10
• Mwiri(sehemu) 30 18 2 25
• Maana zaidi 18,
28 28,40
• Mkazo/visisitizi/radidi
• Methali 16,11 20(maana)38 (kisawe) 28 maana) 38, 40 20 24 36,
• Sentensi paraganya 27 27 21
• Msamiati 18,27 14,40 1,23,6,39 2,5 14,15 8,15,23,42,39 2,3,
• Nyakati 13,21 2 4 2,7,9,12 14 1,6,
• Ote-o-o-te 9 8 23,13 13
• Pakamu 27 26

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

• Rangi
• Sifa VIVUMISHI 23 20
• Saa 44 7,45 22
• Semi/Taashbihi 17 9,50,39 38,49 9,25,42 48,33 32,35,39
• Siku

• Tanakali 23
• Tarakimu 41
• Tashbihi
• Ufuposho 16
• Usemi/H(T.F)Taarifa (TF)22 (T.F)19 29(H) 23(H) 16,T.F 19, T.F 28, T.F
• Ukoo 24 29 26
• Vitendawili 24 24 26 30 29
• Uakifishi 20 25 30
• Vikembe 26
• Wingi 17 29 18 17
• Umoja 23
• Nomino /majina 21dhahania 28 22 19
• NGE-Ngali 21
• Kamusi 30
• Sent-sahihihi 19 17 18 16,33
• Matumizi-kwa/ki 23 22 16(ka)
• Ki ya mashahiri 19 1,28 16
• Mnyaburiko 23,29 3 6 17(tendesha) 7
• Matumizi ya-ji- 3,5
• Vihusishi 27 4,6 2 27
• Vihisishi 30
• Visawe 25 19 26,18

• “a”-unganifu 7
• Matumizi ya –ngi na ingine 10
• Viwakilishi 20

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

NAMBA YAKO YA MTIHANI

 

JINA LAKO

 

JINA LA SHULE YAKO

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 202
THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2003

KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA KWANZA: LUGHA
Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

 

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Tulikaa mkabala wa kidimbwi 1 upepo na kutazama runinga. Kipindi tulichokitazama kilifanya nyoyo zetu kuatuka 2 jitimai. Tuliona watoto wadogo ambao hali zao 3 . Vifupa vya mbavu 4
viliweza kuhesabiwa na matumbo yao yalikuwa 5 viriba. “Kwa nini watoto hawa kuwa hivi?” Baraza 6 . Maganga akajibu, “Watoto hawa wanaugua ugonjwa wa utapiamlo. Utapiamlo ni
7 wa lishe bora mwilini. Tukila chakula 8 mahitaji yetu ya mwili, tutashikwa na ugonjwa huu.

 

1. A.

2. A.

3. A. tukifunga
na zilihuzunisha B.

B.

B. tukipunguza
kwa zilihuzunika C.

C.

C. tukipunga
katika zilihuzunishana D.

D.

D. tukifungia
kwenye zilihuzunikia
4. A. vyao B. zao C. lao D. yao
5. A. mithili za B. mithili wa C. mithili na D. mithili ya

6. A. alishauri B. alijisailiC. alisaili D. alijiuliza

7. A. upungufu B. upunguzaji C. kupunguza D. kupungua

8. A. kisichotoshana B. kisichotoshekaC. kisichotoshewa D. kisichotosheleza

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

16. Chagua kivumishi katika sentensi ifuatayo Mtoto mtiifu haonywi mara nyingi.
A. haonywi

B. mtoto

C. mtiifu

D. mara nyingi

17. Ni msemo upi unaotoa maana ya: Kumpa mtu sifa asizostahili?
A. Kumwonea kijicho

B. Kumlilia ngoa

C. Kumbwagia zani

D. Kumvika kilemba cha ukoka

18. Jengo la kuhifadhia nafaka huitwa

A. ngome

B. ghala

C. ufuo

D. maktaba

19. Chagua sentensi iliyo sahihi

A. Vikombe ambavyo vilinunuliwa ni visafi

B. Vikombe ambavyo vilivyonunuliwa ni visafi

C. Vikombe ambavyo vilinunuliwa ni safi

D. Vikombe ambavyo vilivyonunuliwa ni safi

20. Chagua sentensi iliyoakifishwa ipasavyo

A. Alitumwa kununua vitu vifuatavyo: sukari, vitunguu, mchele, na ngano
B. Alitumwa kununua vitu vifuatavyo, sukari, vitunguu, mchele na ngano.
C. Alitumwa kununua vitu vifuatavyo: sukari, vitunguu, mchele na ngano.
D. Alitumwa kununua vitu vifuatavyo, sukari, vitunguu, mchele, na ngano.

21. Ukubwa wa sentensi

Ndege mkubwa alipaa angani ni:

A. Ndege kubwa alipaa angani.

B. Dege kubwa lilipaa angani.

C. Dege kubwa alipaa angani.

D. Ndege kubwa lilipaa angani.

22. Kitenzi kinachoweza kuundwa kutokana na jina mshindani ni
A. shinda

B. mshinde

C. kishindo

D. shindano

 

23. Ni sentensi ipi kati ya hizi iliyo na kwa ya kuonyesha sababu?
A. Alitembea kwa maringo

K.C.P.E REVISION 205

B. Alilima kwa jembe

C. Alialikwa kwa mwalimu mkuu.

D. Aliadhibiwa kwa utundu wake

24. Juma aligawa robo ya muwa sawasawa kwa wanawe wawili. Kila mmoja alipata
A. sudusi

B. robo mbili

C. thumuni

D. nusu

25. Hili ni umbo gani?

 

 

 

A. Mraba

B. Mche

C. Pia

D. Mstatili

26. Mwana wa simba huitwa

A. mtoto simba

B. simba marara

C. kinengwe

D. shibli

C. kombamwiko

D. samaki

28. Chagua kikundi cha wadudu

A. Mchwa, Nzige, Panzi, Mkizi

B. Nge, Tai, Mbu, Kiroboto

C. Shore, Njiwa, Mende, Konokono

D. Sisimizi, Chungu, Nzige, Kumbikumbi

29. Kanusha:

Ndege akijenga kiota huishi humo.

A. Ndege anapojenga kiota haishi humo

B. Ndege akijenga kiota hataishi humo

C. Ndege asipojenga kiota haishi humo

D. Ndege ajengapo kiota hataishi humo

30. Onyesha kielezi katika sentensi hii: Wazee wengi walitembea polepole
A. Wazee

B. Polepole

C. Walitembea

D. Wengi

Soma kifungu kifuatacho, kisha ujibu maswali 31 mpak
27. Mdomo ni kwa binadamu, kidona ni kwa

A. ndege

B. ndovu

Bwana Limbuka alikuwa amekuzwa katika mazingira ya akifunzwa kazi mapema, atakuwa mkakamavu maishan

K.C.P.E REVISION 206

Kimoyomoyo, alijiapia kuwa akipata kazi na aoe, kisha a

na akapita mitihani yake ya viwango vya juu. Baadaye, a
milima hadi huko ughaibuni kuongezea masomo.

31. Wazazi wa Limbuka

A. waliuwahi udongo ungali maji

B. hawakujali maslahi ya mwana wao

C. walimpa Limbuka fursa ya kujiamulia

D. walikuwa watesi na wasumbufu

32. Limbuka alianza kuwa na mtazamo tofauti na makuzi yake
A. wakati alioa

B. alipopata watoto

C. alipokuwa akiongezea masomo

D. akiwa nyumbani kwa wazazi wake

33. Maana ya “kwake Limbuka alichukulia kinyume” ni kusema;
A. Kufunzwa kazi mapema kunasaidia mtu na familia yake
B. Kufunzwa kazi nyingi ni msingi wa bidii maishani
C. Kufunzwa kazi mapema hakuleti faida yoyote maishani
D. Kufunzwa kazi mapema ni kinyume cha sheria

34. Ni mambo gani yanayoonyesha kuwa Limbuka ni mwacha mila?
A. Kutopenda kazi nyingi, kwenda ng’ambo na kuvutiwa na makuzi ya kigeni.
B. Kuvutiwa na familia za ng’ambo, kupuuza makuzi ya jadi na kuwaonea watoto fahari hata wakiropokwa.

C. Kutowakaripia watoto, kuwanunulia bidhaa ghali na kuwaonea fahari.
D. Kuwaonea watoto fahari hata wakiropokwa, kuwapa mitaji na kupuuza malezi ya jadi.

35. Ni zipi kati ya hizi hazikuwa tabia za watoto wa Limbuka?
A. Kuwaauni wazazi na kutia bidii shuleni.

B. Kulewa na kudharau watu.

C. Kuvuta sigara, kuropokwa na kupenda makuu.
D. Kuiga, kutojali hisia za watu na kuwaaibisha.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

36. Walipokwenda kuchukuliwa shuleni kwa
gari walilolipuuza, walijificha na kusema. “Hilo ni gari la sokoni, halitufai”. Hali hii inamaanisha kuwa
A. wenzao shuleni walikuwa na magari bora zaidi

K.C.P.E REVISION 207

B. hawakupenda kwenda sokoni kwa gari lisilofaa
C. hawakupenda vigari vya supana mikononi

D. nyumbani kulikuwa na gari bora kuliko hilo

37. “Mchelea mwana kulia, hulia yeye.” Limbuka na mkewe walilia kwa:
A. kuwapatia watoto wao mitaji na mali

B. kutolinda watoto wao wakati wakiwa Wazee
C. kukosa mtu wa kuwasaidia wakiwa wazee

D. kusumbuliwa na ukosefu wa mali nyingi.

38. Maana ya kuukabili ulimwengu bila ya kutegemea nundu ni

40. Ughaibuni ni

A. nchi za uzunguni

B. nchi za masomo ya juu

C. nchi zilizoendelea

D. nchi za mbali

A. mtu kuweza kujikimu bila ya kutarajia misaada

B. kuuingilia ulimwengu kwa kushauriwa na wazazi
C. kuuingilia ulimwengu bila kujali matokeo

Soma kifungu hiki kisha ujibu maswali 41-50.

D. mtu kupambana na maisha kwa

Masikio ni sehemu muhimu sana ya mwili. Viumbe wengi

kutegemea wengine

Masikio hutakiwa kusafishwa vizuri wakati wowote mtu a

kuondolewa kwa uangalifu. Baadhi ya watu huyaharibu viberiti. Badala ya kuutoa uchafu huo vizuri, wanaukanda
39. Msimamo wa mwandishi ni kuwa vingine visivyofaa wanapopatwa na mwasho masikioni. Je

A. makuzi ya kigeni ni bora kuliko ya kijadi

B. watoto wakilelewa bila kufunzwa maadili hupotoka
C. watoto wakipata elimu ya juu huharibika

D. watoto wanapopotoka wapewe mitaji

kilichotokomezwa na kudidimia sikioni, kinavyoweza kug kubwa? Idhihirike kuwa, kuingiza vijidude kama hivyo ma Kuzibuliwa kwa masikio hayo huweza kugeuka kuwa ngo kujitakia ni kama mtu kujipalia makaa.

Baadhi ya masikio huharibiwa na sauti kubwa kama ya m

na mali

sauti za wastani. Sauti kubwa za kushtua moyo hazidhuru

wagonjwa wenye maradhi ya moyo. Ni vyema kuyajali ma

K.C.P.E REVISION

fahari hali hiyo ya kupandisha sana sauti za redio majumb

208
huwadhuru hata wahusika wenyewe bila kujua. Isitoshe,
Uangushaji wa vyombo kama sahani na vyuma sakafu mikutanoni nazo hazifai. Kulitesatesa sikio kwa kulitogato

41. Masikio ni sehemu ya

A. kiwiliwili

B. ndewe

C. kichwa

D. shavu

42. Uchafu hukandamizwa masikioni kwa

A. kutotolewa kwa njia inayofaa

B. kuziba kwa masikio

C. kuingiza vitu visivyofaa

D. kuwa na kidonda sikioni

43. Ni hali gani inayofanya watu kuchokorachokora masikio?
A. yanapouma

B. yanapotoa usaha

C. yanapovimba

D. yanapowasha

44. Sauti kubwa za kushtua

A. zinasababisha ugonjwa wa moyo

B. zinaweza kudhuru wagonjwa wa moyo

C. hazitolewi palipo na wagonjwa wa moyo

D. zinadhuru tu wagonjwa wa moyo

45. Ni mambo gani yanayofaa kuepukwa majumbani ili kuzuia watu wasiharibike masikio?
A. Kupandisha sauti kwenye matatu
K.C.P.E REVISION

nakuingiza vitu masikioni.

B. Kutoga masikio, kuweka kemikali nakumwona daktari.
C. Kuangusha vyombo, kupiga kelele na kuvuta masikio.
D. Kuongeza sauti, kutotoga masikio nakutovuta masikio.

46. Kwa nini tabia ya kupandisha sauti za redio majumbani huweza kuleta uhasama kwa majirani?
A. Majirani huenda hawapendi kupigiwa kelele.
B. Kwa sababu majirani hawana redio zao.

C. Majirani wana ugonjwa wa masikio na moyo.
D. Ni kawaida ya majirani kupenda uhasama.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

47. Maana ya kidonda kisichofaa kutafutiwa dawa za kiholela ni
A. kidonda kinachohitaji dawa za kiasili

B. kidonda kisichoweza kupona kamwe

209

C. kidonda kinachohitaji matibabu ya haraka zaidi
D. kidonda kinachohitaji matibabu yenye uangalifu zaidi

48. Kujipalia makaa ni

A. kujisababishia jambo

B. kujiletea madhara

C. kujiwekea makaa

D. kujiletea jambo

49. Chagua methali mwafaka inayoweza kutumika kueleza kifungu hiki
A. Kipendacho moyo ni dawa

B. Heri kufa jicho kuliko kufa moyo

C. Usipoziba ufa utajenga ukuta

D. Sikio la kufa halisikii dawa.

50. Fundisho la habari hii ni

A. Kutunza masikio

B. Kumwona daktari

C. Kutocheza na vitu masikioni

D. Kutopandisha sauti za redio

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2004

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako kamili ya mtihani, Jina la Shule yako.

1. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

INSHA BORA 2004

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 212

(

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Alama iliyotunzwa 31)

Huyu mwandishi ameielewa mada aliyopewa.ametumiasemi n methali na Kiswahili chake kina ufasaha mwingihati yake pia ni nzurina amepanga kazi yake vizuri.hata hivyo
,amefanya makosa ya sarufina hijai hapa na pale.

Mfano;
-’familia mpoja ambaye’,badala ya‘familia moja ambayo’
-’alisomo’,badala ya alisoma’
-’kufuvu’,badala ya ‘kkufuzu’

-’anaye-ngojea’ badala ya’anayengojea’

KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2004

KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA KWANZA: LUGHA

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.
Kristina alijiangalia tena kiooni. Akauona uso wake uliosawijika na kujaa mabaka ya kila aina. 1 vimbe lililosimama kwa 2 kwenye paji la uso wake kana kwamba lilitaka kumkumbusha jambo ambalo daima alitaka 3 . Kwa mbali akaanza kujiwa na kumbukizi. Akayakunjua maisha yake ya
4 . Akavuta fikira tena na kuona jinsi 5 mjini na kuingilia anasa za mji bila tahadhari. Akajiangalia tena asiweze kuamini macho yake, kakonda ghaya ya kukonda, kabaki 6 . Machozi 7 njia mbili mbili. Akalia kwa kite na imani, akililia ujana wake, akililia maisha yake; 8
angalijua! “Lakini, ah!” 9 . “Ya kumwagika yamemwagika. 10 . Niliufaidi uhondo wa mji, kwa nini nijute? Hawakusema wasemao kuwa 11 ?”

1. A. Akalitazama B. Akavitazama C. Akazitazama D. Akaitazama
2. A. imara B. dharau C. thabiti D. dhahiri
3. A. kujitambulisha B. kujiondoa C. kujisahaulisha D. kujiandaa
4. A. baadaye B. usoni C. kisasa D. kisogoni
5. A. alivyojihamisha B. alivyojichomoa C. alivyojitoma D. alivyojinasua
6. A. pandikizi la mtu B. gofu la mtu C. fuvu la mtu D. nofu la mtu
7. A. yakambubujika B. yakamlengalenga C. yakamwagika D. yakamsonga
8. A. sembuse B. maadamu C. minghairi D. laiti

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

 

16. Ni methali ipi inayoafikiana na maelezo kuwa:

Haifai kuwadharau watu waliokusaidia hapo awali, huenda ukahitaji msaada wao tena?

A. Ganda la muwa la jana chungu kaona kivuno
B. Usione kwenda mbele kurudi nyuma si kazi

C. Mwenda tezi na omo marejeo ni ngamani

D. Usitukane wakunga na uzazi ungalipo

 

17. Chagua wingi wa sentensi: Hukujua kuwa ningekutembelea?

A. Hawakujua kuwa tungewatembelea?

B. Hamkujua kuwa tungewatembelea?

C. Hamkujua kuwa ningewatembelea?

D. Hawakujua kuwa ningewatembelea?

 

18. “Shinda” ni kuwa wa kwanza katika jambo. Maana nyingine ni:

A. Bila kujaa

B. Jambo kuwa gumu

C. Kutofanikiwa

D. Kaa macho usiku kucha

 

19. Kiambishi ki kimetumiwa kuleta maana gani katika sentensi ifuatayo?

Wanacheka wakiimba

C. Kuonyesha vitendo viwili vinafanyika kimoja baada ya kingine.
D. Kuonyesha vitendo viwili vinafanyika wakati mmoja.
20. Chagua sentensi mwafaka inayounganisha hizi: Fatma alituzwa. Fatma hakufurahi.
A. Lau Fatma alituzwa hakufurahi

B. Fatma hakufurahi aghalabu alituzwa

C. Fatma hakufurahi licha ya kutuzwa

D. Maadamu Fatma hakufurahi alituzwa

 

21. Tunaitaje wakati kati ya saa sita na saa nane mchana?
A. Adhuhuri

B. Alasiri

C. Jua la utosi

D. Jua la matlai

 

22. Chagua usemi wa taarifa ufaao wa: “Nitasoma kwa bidii ili nifaulu”. akasema.

A. Anasema kuwa anasoma kwa bidii ili afaulu

B. Alisema kuwa atasoma kwa bidii ili afaulu

C. Anasema kuwa angesoma kwa bidii ili afaulu
D. Alisema kuwa angesoma kwa bidii ili afaulu

A. Kuonyesha kutegemeana kwa vitendo.
B. Kuonyesha vitendo viwili vinafanyika baada ya muda.

B. hatari, wanne

C. waliwafukuza, vijana

D. waliopita, hapo.

 

27. Chagua kihusishi katika sentensi:

Kiboko mkali alimvamia mvuvi aliyesimama

23. Chagua hali ya kutendewa ya sentensi ifuatayo: Mganga alinigangua kwa miti-shamba

A. Aliganguliwa na mganga kwa miti-shamba.

B. Niliganguliwa mganga kwa miti-shamba.

C. Niliganguliwa na mganga kwa miti-shamba.

D. Aliganguliwa mganga kwa miti-shamba.

24. Tegua kitendawili

Juu ya mlima kuna msitu mweusi

A. Chungu

B. Nywele

C. Mpingo

D. Makaa

 

25. Chagua kiwakilishi katika sentensi ifuatayo: Niitie Juma nimtume, huyu amekataa kuenda.
A. Juma

B. Nimtume

C. Kuenda

D. Huyu

 

26. Ni maneno yapi ambayo ni vivumishi katika sentensi hii? Mbwa hatari waliwafukuza vijana wanne waliopita hapo.

A. vijana, wanne

kando ya mto

A. kando ya

B. mkali

C. mvuvi

D. aliyesimama

 

28. Sentensi “Stella amekwenda kwao” ina maana mbili. Zichague

A. (i) Amekwenda alikozaliwa

(ii) Amekwenda mbali na kwao

B. (i) Amekwenda kwa mtu mwingine

(ii) Amekwenda mbali na kwao

C. (i) Amekwenda alikozaliwa

(ii) Amekwenda kwa watu wengine

D. (i) Amekwenda kwa watu wengine

(ii) Amekwenda mbali na kwao

 

29. Chagua sentensi yenye “na” ya kuonyesha mtendaji

A. Rosa ameandikiwa barua na Rahma

B. Akida na Anasa ni wanafunzi wazuri

C. Tamaa na ubinafsi ni chanzo cha uovu

D. Ninunulie matunda na mboga

30. Jina kutokana na kitenzi hama ni:

A. Amehama

B. Hamishwa

C. Hamia

D. Mahame

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali.

Katika kijiji kimoja kijulikanacho kwa jina Makanyo, kuliondokea kijana mmoja ambaye Mungu alimtu-nukia bongo. Kijana huyu alijulikana kwa jina Tumaini. Darasani alikuwa hawezekani. Akasoma kwa bidii ya mchwa hadi akafika chuo kikuu na kuivunja rekodi kwa kukwangura alama nzuri ajabu. Baadaye akaoa mke kufu yake na kuwapata watoto ambao nao vilevile walizifuata nyayo za wazazi wao.

 

Jambo lililokuwa linaikera familia ya kina Tumaini lilikuwa ni ukosefu wa kuwajibika kwa ndugu.
Kaka zake walikuwa wazembe na butu shuleni. Kila walipokanywa na kushauriwa kuwa wasome vyema kama ndugu yao Tumaini, walipuuza na kucheka, wakashindwa hata kuchungulia yale vidato vya sekondari vifunguavyo vijana macho na akili zaidi. Tabia zao zikazorota, wakawa wanapiga mtindi tu na kuzurura.

Ingawa tabia za ndugu hawa ziliendelea kuwa mbaya. Tumaini hakukata tamaa kabisa. Mara kwa mara aliwaita kuwashika sikio na kuwapa mawaidha. Alijitolea kuwalipia ada za kwenda kujisomea masomo ya ngumbaru ili angalau waweze kujishikiza katika sekta ya “Jua-Kali” lakini wapi! Walianza masomo na kuyaachia njiani.

Wazazi walipokaribia kuwapungia mikono wana wao humu duniani, waliwaita kwa pamoja na kutoa wasia na hata kuwapa urithi wa mashamba. Tumaini akawaambia ndugu zake kuwa kwa kuwa anao uwezo yeye atawaachia hayo mashamba ili wayalime na kuweza kujiinua. Wazee wakafurahi kuona kuwa Tumaini alijali maslahi ya wadogo zake.

Baada ya vifo vya wazazi hao, wadogo hao hawakuchelea kuipiga mali shoka mara moja. Tumaini aliwaonya lakini aliambulia nunge. Maonyo hayo yote yaliingilia sikio moja na kutokea lile jingine, huku yakipurukia hewani.

Siku moja, ajali mbaya ya barabarani ikaamua kuyakatisha maisha mema ya Tumaini na mkewe. Huzuni iliwakumbatia wana wao lakini majirani na marafiki wakaingilia shughuli za mazishi na kuzimaliza. Wakaanza kuwatunza watoto ambao wakati huo walikuwa wakimalizia elimu ya shule ya msingi.

Nduguze Tumaini walikuwa wakidhani wamepata vya bwerere na kujiona wakifaidi mali ya Tumaini na mkewe kama tu ile ya wazazi. Hata hivyo, juhudi si pato. waliyoyataka hayakuwa. Marafiki wa Tumaini waliyatilia guu matendo ya ndugu hawa ambao walikuwa wameanza kuinyemelea mali ya
K.CT.uPm.EaRinEVi.ISWIOaNlijaribu kwa udi na uvumba kuzuia dhulu2m19a hii na walipoona mambo yatachacha

31. Tumaini alithibitisha werevu wake kwa

A. kupita mitihani yote, kuonya ndugu, kutii
wazazi, kuacha urithi wake

B. kupita mitihani yote, kupenda majirani, kuwaachia wanawe urithi chini ya wakili
C. kupita mitihani yote, kuonya ndugu, kuwaachia wanawe urithi chini ya wakili
D. kupita mitihani yote, kupenda ndugu, kuwaachia urithi chini ya wakili.

32. Wazazi wa Tumaini walikuwa na busara kwani
A. waliwapa wasia wana wao wamtii Tumaini

B. waliwaachia wana wao urithi

C. walikuwa na maonyo mengi

D. waliwaonya wana wao wakasikia

33. Ndugu wa Tumaini waliposhauriwa wasome walicheka kwa sababu
A Tumaini hakuwa tajiri ijapokuwa alisoma
B. walitarajia kufaidi mali ya ndugu yao

C. huwakuona haja ya masomo

D. walishindwa kuendelea na masomo

C. walifundishwa kazi za jua kali wakashindwa
D. walisoma ngumbaru wakakosa kupata kazi

35. Maana ya mke kufu yake ni

A. mke wa jamii yake

B. mke aliyelingana naye

C. mke wa kijiji chake

D. mke aliyesoma naye

36. Baada ya vifo vya wazazi wao, nduguze Tumaini,
A. walidhani watafaidi mali

B. waligawiwa mali wengine wakaifuja

C. walimnyima Tumaini urithi wote

D. walianza kuifuja mali mara moja

kuzimaliza”. Hali ya huu msaada inaweza kuelezewa kwa methali:
A. Damu ni nzito kuliko maji

B. Akufaaye kwa dhiki ndiye rafiki

C. Kenda ni bora kuliko kumi nenda rudi

D. Ndugu mui heri kuwa naye

38. Haki za watoto zilitimizwa kwa

A kusomeshwa, kuonywa, kusaidiwa, kuishi
na ndugu wakiwa mayatima

B. kulindiwa urithi wao na ndugu, kugawiwa urithi na kusaidiwa na majirani
C. kusomeshwa, kusaidiwa walipofiwa, kupewa
urithi na kuelekezwa kushtaki maonevu

D. kutomruhusu yeyote kuwanyang’anya mali,
kuelekezwa kwa mashtaka na kuruhusiwa
kuuza mali

39. Kulingana na kifungu, kuipiga mali shoka ni:

A. hakikuwafunikia aibu

B. hakikuwakamilisha

C. hakikuwatamanisha

D. hakikuwatosheleza

A. kutumia mali vibaya

B. kugawanya mali yote

C. kuhifadhi mali yote

D. kupiga mali bei

40. Neno hakikuwasitiri kama lilivyotumika katika
kifungu linamaanisha

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali. 41-50

 

Usafiri katika nchi nyingi za Kiafrika ni tatizo sugu. Baadhi ya watu hutembea kwa muda mrefu kwa miguu kwa kuukosa usafiri wa haraka. Wengine hupanda hata ngamia ili wapige hatua. Pia, punda hutumiwa kusafirisha mizigo. Kwa wale waliodiriki kujinunulia magari, muda haupiti kabla ya ukarabati kuhitajika. Mamilioni ya magari ya aina hiyo huwa tu ni ya kubebewa nyundo na parafujo kila wakati. Hali hii imezidishwa na barabara ambazo hazijatiwa lami au hata zikiwa zimetiwa, hupachikwa kiholela tu. Mashimo barabarani yanaharibu magurudumu na hata magari yenyewe. Isitoshe, ukata katika jamii unachangia uhaba wa magari mazuri na hata ubovu wa hayo machache. Hii ni kwa sababu watu hawana ngwenje za kununulia vipuri vifaavyo au kujinunulia magari mapya.

Wengine hujikidhia mahitaji yao ya usafiri kwa kutumia baiskeli. Hizi zina nafuu kifedha kuliko magari, lakini haziwezi kubeba mizigo mingi na mizito. Wachache sana hutumia eropleni na meli ambapo wengi huweza kuyatumia magari moshi. Magari moshi hubeba watu na vitu kwa wingi. Gharama za ukarabati wa reli, mabehewa ya magari hayo na injini zao, zimesababisha ongezeko kubwa la nauli katika miaka ya hivi karibuni. Watu wengi wanashindwa kuulipia usafiri huu. Baadhi yao huyadandiadandia magari hayo hadi paani mwa mabehewa na mabogi ili tu wakwepe kulipa nauli. Mtindo huu hautatizi tu shirika la reli bali huzua hatari kwa wasafiri. Baadhi ya wadandiaji huporomoka na kujivunjia viungo, jambo ambalo huongeza idadi ya walemavu bure bilashi.

 

Matatu na mabasi ni aina ya uchukuzi ambao ni maarufu nchini Kenya. Uchukuzi huu umekuwa ukiwafaa watu wengi sana kwa miaka na dahari, hasa wale wa kima cha chini na cha wastani. Jambo linalowaudhi abiria zaidi ni ukosefu wa kudhibiti mambo mengi yanayohusiana na aina hiyo ya usafiri. Mathalani, kudhibiti mwendo wa magari hayo, tabia za utingo na madereva na kujaza watu garini kama makopa. Zaidi ya hayo, imekuwa ni shida kuzidhibiti tabia za wale wapendao kurambishwa asali katika sekta hii.

 

Hivi majuzi, waziri wa usafiri na mawasiliano alifanya juu chini akaibuka na mikakati kabambe ya kuondoa udhia mwingi katika sekta ya usafiri. Aliwataka wenye magari kuweka vidhibiti mwendo, abiria kuitumia mikanda ya usalama, utingo na madereva kuvaa sare na magari kutobeba abiria kupita kiasi. Kwa kuwa wenye magari wengi hawakuweza kutimiza masharti hayo kwa muda uliowekwa, ilibidi magari mengi yasitumike kwa muda.

Abiria ambao walikuwa wamechoshwa na vituko barabarani walipiga moyo konde na kujisemea. “Si hoja, hata kama itabidi tutembee kwa miguu kwa muda ni sawa, mradi tupate suluhisho la kudumu”.

Kulingana na matokeo ya uchunguzi uliofanywa muda mfupi uliopita, imegunduliwa kuwa tayari ajali zimepungua, usafiri umekuwa wa utulivu na nidhamu ya utingo na madereva imeimarika. Zogo la “kama hutaki kubinywa nunua lako” limekwisha kabisa.

C. uhaba wa magari, ukosefu wa kuwadhibiti

41. Mwandishi amezitaja aina zifuatazo za usafiri:

A. miguu, wanyama, udandiaji, gari moshi.

B. gari moshi, gari, miguu, baiskeli.

abiria, ukwepaji wa nauli

D. mashimo barabarani, ukarabati na

C. wanyama, pikipiki, udandiaji, ndege.

D. miguu, baiskeli, ndege, pikipiki.

42. Kulingana na kifungu watu hudandia magari ya moshi kwa sababu
A. usafiri ni wa bei nafuu

B. wanataka kuepuka udhia wa usafiri

C. usafiri wa magari ni ghali

D. wanataka kuepuka kulipa nauli

43. Kifungu kinasema kuwa njia ya usafiri inayotumika sana ni
A. barabara

B. eropleni

C. baiskeli

D. gari moshi

44. Mambo yanayochangia katika kuzorotesha uchukuzi ni

A. umaskini, njia mbaya za uchukuzi na ukosefu wa vidhibiti
B. ukosefu wa lami, kudandia magari na
kutokarabati magari

uendeshaji kasi

45. Magari ya kubebewa nyundo na parafujo kila wakati ni magari
A. mabovu

B. mapya

C. ya uchukuzi

D. ya wakarabati

46. Kujivunjia viungo kwa mujibu wa kifungu ni

A. kuvunja viungo bila usaidizi

B. kujisababishia kuvunjika kwa viungo

C. kuvunja viungo bila sababu

D. kujivunjia viungo kwa makusudi

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

47. Suluhisho kuu la usafiri wa barabarani ni:

A. Kuwazungumzia polisi, madereva na wenye

K.C.P.E REVISION 223

magari

B. Kuwazungumzia na kuwadhibiti wasafiri

C. Kuwafuta wasiotimiza masharti

D. Kudhibiti kila kitu kibaya kinachohusu usafiri

48. Abiria walisema . . . “si hoja, hata kama itatubidi tutembee . . .” kwa sababu
A. walikuwa wamechoka kulipa nauli za juu na kudandia
B. walikuwa wamechoshwa na magari ya moshi
C. walikuwa wakitaka mikanda ya usafiri na
vidhibiti mwendo

D. walikuwa wameudhishwa na shida za usafiri

49. Mabadiliko yaliyowekwa katika sekta ya usafiri hivi majuzi yamesababisha
A. usafiri kuwa wa utulivu, utingo kuwa nadhifu zaidi
B. kuimarika kwa nidhamu ya utingo na madereva na zogo kupungua
C. kupungua kwa ajali, nidhamu ya utingo na madereva kuimarika, usafiri kuwa wa utulivu
D. kuimarika kwa vidhibiti mwendo na nidhamu ya utingo na madereva

50. Maana ya wapendao kurambishwa asali ni

A. wapendao kula vitamu

B. wapendao kula hongo

C. wapendao anasa nyingi

D. wapendao vya bure

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2005

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako Kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la shule yako.

2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

INSHA BORA 2005

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 227

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Alama iliyotunzwa 37

K.C.P.E REVISION 228

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka I5. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo.
Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Malkia alivua 1 wake kichwani akamtazama kitwana huyo kwa hasira asijue la kufanya. Hakuweza kuamini _2_ . “Si huyu aliyekuwa mtumishi wangu mwaminifu?” _3_ kimoyomoyo. “Kwa nini akanifanyia hivyo licha
ya 4 niliyomtendea?” Alikumbuka alivyomwokota kijana huyo akichumia chungu mekoni hana hali wala mali, akifanya vibarua 5 , 6 mpaka akaonekana nadhifu; akampa kazi, tegemeo na usalama. “Leo hii anathubutu 7 kiasi hiki? Ama kweli ivushayo ni mbovu.”

 

1. A. ukanda B. utaji C. utepe D. ukosi
2.
3. A. aliyoyasikia B. aliyasikia C. aliyeyasikia D. aliosikia
4.
5. A. Akajisema B. Akamsema C. Akamsemea D. Akajisemea
6.
7. A. mingi B. wengi C. mengi D. nyingi
8.
9. A. vidogovidogo B. ndogo C. kidogokidogo D. dogo

10.
11. A. akamtuza B. akamtunza C. akamtunzia D. akamtuzia
12.
13. A. kumdhulumu B. kudhulumu C. kuwadhulumu D. kunidhulumu
14.
K.C.P.E REVISION 229
Uhifadhi wa mazingira ni jambo 8 sharti lishughulikiwe 9 . Kwa kuwa mazingira ni uhai, hatuwezi kamwe 10 wito wa 11 . 12 mitaa yetu imesheheni 13 ya taka za kila aina. Miti imekatwa

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

 

16. Baba, mama, wifi, shangazi ni majina ya jamii.
Shungi la nywele, halaiki ya watu ni majina ya

A. makundi

B. pekee

C. wingi

D. dhahania

 

17. Chagua neno ambalo halipaswi kuwapo katika kundi hili.

A. kasuku

B. Njiwa

C. Korongo

D. Siafu

 

18. Kukanusha kwa sentensi:

Maria ameingia darasani akanipata. ni:
A. Maria hakuingia darasani wala hakunipata

B. Maria hajaingia darasani wala hajanipata

C. Maria haingii darasani wala hanipati.

D. Maria ameingia darasani wala hakunipata

B. Fatu alimwambia kuwa akija mapema ataweza kumtembeza humu mwao.
C. Fatu alimwambia kuwa angekuja mapema angeweza kumtembeza humo mwao.

D. Fatu alimwambia kuwa akija mapema ataweza kumtembeza humo mwao.

20. Bainisha matumizi ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari katika sentensi:

Mwanafunzi huyu ni wangu, yule pale ni wako

A. Kivumishi, kiwakilishi

B. Kielezi, kiwakilishi

C. Kivumishi, kielezi

D. Kiwakilishi, kivumishi

 

21. Tofauti ya maana kati ya wanne na wa nne ni:

A. Wanne ni idadi ya jumla na wa nne ni idadi kamili katika orodha.

B. Wanne ni kuonyesha sifa na wa nne ni kuonyesha idadi.
C. Wanne ni kuonyesha idadi kamili na wa nne ni anayechukua nafasi your nne katika orodha.
D. Wanne ni idadi kamili na wa nne ni idadi katika orodha.

 

19. Chagua usemi wa taarifa ufaao wa: “Ukija mapema

nitaweza kukutembeza humu mwetu,” Fatu akamwambia.

A. Fatu alimwambia kuwa angekuja mapema angeweza kumtembeza humu mwao.
K.C.P.E REVISION

 

 

 

 

230

22. Chagua sentensi inayoonyesha kwa ya matumizi

A. Ameenda kwa haraka

B. Amealikwa harusini kwa Hamisi

C. Tulikula wali kwa mchuzi

D. Alienda Ulaya kwa ndege

 

23. Mahali gerezani anapowekwa mshukiwa akingojea kesi kumalizika huitwa

A. kizimba

B. rumande

C. jela

D. mahakama

24. Jibu la kitendawili ‘Hushindana wakifuatana’ ni

A. kivuli

B. mawingu

C. miguu

D. magurudumu

 

25. Chagua uakifishi ufaao wa:

Musa alishangaa lo leo umepatikana

A. Musa alishangaa “lo leo umepatikana!”

B. Musa alishangaa lo! leo umepatikana!

C. Musa alishangaa, “Lo! Leo umepatikana!”

D. Musa alishangaa, Lo leo umepatikana!

 

26. Njuga ni kwa mguu. Zulia ni kwa

A. sakafu

B. dari

C. kiambaza

D. dirisha

27. Panga vifungu vifuatavyo kuunda sentensi yenye maana kamili
(i) Yanayohusu maisha yao

(ii) Vijana wa hirimu

(iii) Huwa na mazungumzo

(iv) Kuhusu mambo

 

A. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

B. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

C. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

 

28. Chagua sentensi yenye ki ya kuonyesha udogo

A. Kikoba kile kimejaa pesa

B. Kiambaza kile kitapakwa rangi

C. Akija kule atampata

D. Mtoto yule amevaa Kiafrika

 

29. Wingi wa sentensi: Seremala aliitengeneza meza nzuri
akamuuzia mteja ni:

A. Seremala walizitengeneza meza nzuri wakamuuzia mteja
B. Seremala walizitengeneza meza nzuri wakawauzia wateja.

C. Maseremala walizitengeneza meza nzuri wakaziuzia wateja.
D. Maseremala walizitengeneza meza nzuri wakawauzia wateja.

30. Utosi ni kwa kichwa.

Kisigino ni kwa

A. mtulinga

B. mkono

C. wayo

D. goti

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31-40.

Faraja alikuwa kainamia mashine yake ya kompyuta akifanya kazi kwa furaha. Ilikuwa siku yake ya pili katika ofisi hii kubwa. Kwa kweli, hakuna aliyeweza kufikiria kuwa kijana huyu angepata kazi nzuri kama hii. Wazazi wake, Bwana Chakavu na Bi. Tabu hawakuweza kupata elimu ya kisasa ambayo iliwawezesha marika zao kupata kazi za ajira ofisini. Wazazi hao wakabakia kufanya kazi katika mashamba na majumba ya matajiri.

Ingawa Bwana na Bi. Chakavu walijitahidi kufanya kazi, pato walilopata halikuweza kutosheleza mahitaji ya watoto wao. Licha ya kushindwa kuwapa watoto hao lishe bora, wazazi hawa waliona vigumu sana kuwanunulia mavazi mazuri na hata kuwalipia karo ya shule, Maisha kwa Faraja na ndugu zake yakawa ya taabu na mashaka.

Ni kweli kuwa Faraja na ndugu zake walikuwa maskini wa mali. Hata hivyo, vijana hawa walikuwa matajiri wa akili. Akili zao zilikuwa kama visu vikali vinavyokata kwa ncha zote. Kila mara Faraja aliliongoza darasa lake. Ndugu zake pia walipata alama nzuri. Jambo hili liliwatia wazazi wao moyo, wakafanya kila juhudi kuwalipia karo. Hata hivyo Faraja na ndugu zake walikuwa wakifukuzwa kuleta karo. Wanafunzi waliosoma na Faraja walipogundua kipawa chake, walianza kumheshimu na kumpenda. Hata wale waliomdharau kwa uhitaji wake walinong’onezana kisirisiri wasije wakamuudhi. Kwa hakika, licha ya Faraja
kuwa hodari masomoni, alikuwa karimu na mnyenyekevu. Hakusita kuwasaidia wale ambao walikuwa visu
butu katika masomo mbalimbali. Jambo hili lilimfanya aendelee kupendwa na wanafunzi na hata walimu.

 

Wahenga walisema kuwa chanda chema huvikwa pete. Juhudi za Faraja shuleni zilimpa pato. Akawa

mwanafunzi bora katika mtihani wa darasa la nane na kujiunga na shule moja your kitaifa nchini.

Haukupita muda kabla ya shida ya ukosefu wa karo kujidhihirisha. Bwana Chakavu akatafuta usaidizi asiupate.
Faraja akaanza kuona kwamba kamba yake ya matumaini inatishia kukatika.

 

K.C.HP.aEtRaEhViIvSyIOo,Nwaliosema kuwa wema hauozi hawakuk2o3s3ea. Katika shule ya Faraja kulikuwa na mwanafunzi mmoja aliyewahi kusaidiwa na Faraja masomoni wakiwa shule ya msingi. Mwanafunzi huyu
kwa jina Tegemeo, alikuwa na wazazi waliojiweza. Aliwaomba wazazi wake wamsaidie Faraja, nao, kwa kujua umuhimu wa kuwaelimisha vijana, walijitolea mara moja kumlipia Faraja karo hadi kidato cha

31. Watu hawakufikiria Faraja angepata kazi nzuri kwa kuwa
A. wazazi wake hawakupata elimu ya marika zao
B. wazazi wake walikuwa maskini

C. wazazi wake hawakupata kazi yoyote kama wengine
D. wazazi wake walikuwa na watoto wengi.

32. Mambo yanayoooyesha matatizo ya akina Faraja ni
A. kutopata chakula na shida ya karo

B. shida ya karo na kutopata chakula bora

C. kutopata chakula bora na ukosefu wa mavazi
D. ukosefu wa mavazi na wazazi kuwa na pato duni.

33. Wanafunzi walimpenda Faraja kwa sababu

A. hakuwalaumu walipomsema kisirisiri

B. aliwasaidia ndugu zake na wazazi

C. alikuwa karimu na mnyamavu

D. alikuwa karimu na mnyenyekevu

34. Kitendo kisichoonyesha ukweli wa methali Chanda chema huvikwa pete ni

A. Faraja kuwa mwanafunzi bora katika mtihani.
B. Faraja kulipiwa karo na Bwana na Bi Karimu
C. Wazazi kusaidiwa na Faraja.

D. Faraja kufanya bidii kazini

35. Wazazi wa Tegemeo walimsaidia Faraja kwa kuwa
A walijua umuhimu wa kusaidia

B. walijua umuhimu wa urafiki

C. walijua umuhimu wa kuwaelimisha vijana D walijua umuhimu wa wema wa vijana.

36. Chagua jawabu lililo sahihi zaidi:

Faraja alijitahidi zaidi masomoni ili

A. kuwashukuru wazazi kwa kuwasaidia nduguze
B. kuwashukuru wafadhili kwa kumsaidia

C. kuwashukuru wazazi na wafadhili

D. kuwashukuru wafadhili na kuwasaidia wazazi

K.C.P.E REVISION 234

37. Kulingana na kifungu matendo yanayoonyesha A. Faraja hupata shida
kushughulikiwa kwa watoto ni B. Ni muhimu kusaidia
C. Tusikate tamaa
A. kutowafukuza shule na kujitahidi D. Umaskini huumiza
kuwasomesha

B. kujitahidi kuwasomesha na kuwalipia karo

C. kuwalipia karo na kuwasaidia katika masomo
D. kuwasaidia katika masomo na kuwapa lishe bora.

38. akaanza kuona kwamba kamba yake ya

matumaini inatishia kukatika inamaanisha.

 

A.. amelikosa alilotumainia

B. alilotegemea huenda asilipate

C. alilotarajia halipatikani kabisa

D. aliloazimia halitakuja

39. Kulingana na taarifa hii, maana ya visu butu ni

A. wanafunzi wasiofanya vyema masomoni

B. visu visivyokata

C. wanafunzi wasiotia bidii masomoni

D. visu visivyopata makali.

40. Kichwa kinachofaa zaidi kwa taarifa hii ni

K.C.P.E REVISION 235

Soma kifungu hiki kisha ujibu maswali 41-50.
Hivi majuzi palizuka patashika katika vituo viwili vya polisi. Watoto wanaojulikana kama chokora
waliwaonyesha polisi kisanga. Walipanga njama za kutapakaza vinyesi katika vituo hivyo vya polisi.
Kisanga hiki kilichukuliwa na wengi kama ujinga, kichekesho na uchafu. Hata hivyo, tendo hilo likipigwa darubini linaweza kuzua mambo mengi ambayo yanapaswa kumulikwa. Hebu tujiulize kwanza: Ni nani aliye na akili timamu ambaye angeenda haja kubwa, kisha achukue kinyesi hicho na kukishika na kukitumia apendavyo bila kuhisi kinyaa? Bila shaka jibu la swali hili unalijua fika.

Kisanga kama hicho huwa na chanzo chenye kina kirefu ambacho kisipochunguzwa kwa undani kinaweza hata kuangamiza nchi. Ajabu ni kuwa jamii yetu imejaa mapuuza kuhusu maswala ya watoto. Watoto wanachukuliwa kuwa hawana uwezo wa kujiamulia, kwa hivyo hawashirikishwi katika maswala mengi yanayohusu maisha yao. Kutokana na hali hii jamii imeshindwa kutambua shida za watoto hawa Watoto wanapoona kuwa wanapuuzwa huamua kuchukua hatua mbalimbali kuishinikiza jamii kuwashughulikia. Kisanga kilichotokea katika vituo vya polisi ni njia mojawapo tu ya kuonyesha uchungu mkubwa walionao watoto hawa. Jambo la kusikitisha ni kwamba wengi wetu hatujatafakari na kuvivumbua vilio vya watoto hawa. Badala yake, tunawachukua kama punguani, wachafu, wezi . . . .
Wengi wapitapo karibu nao hufunga pua zao na kuchepukia mbali wakiwaambaa kama wagonjvva wa ukoma. Ni binadamu wachache sana ambao huthubutu kuwakaribia na kuwapa rnsaada. Hakuna wengi wanaosutwa na nafsi zao na kujishughulisha kusugua bongo na kujiuliza kwa nini watoto hawa wakageuka kuwa hivyo. Ukweli ni kuwa, hawa ni binadamu wenzetu. Kila binadamu anapaswa kujaliwa maslahi yake. Watoto wana haki ya kuishi hata kama ni maskini. Wanastahili kupendwa na kutimiziwa mahitaji yao ya kimsingi.

Jamii ina jukumu la kutafuta suluhisho la kudumu kuhusiana na hali ya watoto hawa. Kuna haja ya kuwa na mpango kabambe ya kukabiliana na tatizo hili sugu. Kwanza itabidi waketishwe kitako na kuhojiwa ili chanzo cha matatizo yao kijulikane. Huenda baadhi ya matatizo yao yanayowafanya wawe mitaani ni kukosana tu na wazazi, ndugu au walimu. Wengi wao wakipata washauri watakaowapa nafasi ya kujieleza, wataweza kukubali kurejea makwao. La sivyo wakiachwa waendelee kuzurura mitaani watakutana na ‘walimu’ wabaya wa kuwapotosha zaidi. Ikumbukwe kuwa baadhi ya watoto wanaotoroka kwao, wafikapo mijini hukumbana na matatizo makubwa zaidi ya yale yaliyowatoa nyumbani. Ingawa wengi wao wangependa kurudi kwao, hawafanyi hivyo kutokana na woga na aibu. Watoto hawa wakiwahiwa mapema watarudi nyumbani na kuishi vyema. Chuma kiwahi kingali moto.
K.C.P.E REVISION 236
Aidha, watoto wanaopelekwa kwenye vituo vya kurekebishia tabia hawafai kuachwa kukaa bure.

41. Kisanga kinachozungumziwa hapa ni

A. watoto kufungiwa kwa sababu ya kutapakaza kinyesi
B. jamii yetu kupuuza shida za watoto

C. kutapakaza kinyesi katika vituo viwili vya polisi
D. jamii kuona kitendo cha watoto kama kichekesho.

42. Bila shaka jibu la swali hili unalijua fika ina maana
A. watu wenye akili punguani hujitapakaza uchafu.
B. mtu mwenye akili timamu hawezi kujitapakaza uchafu.
C. kuna wapendao kushika uchafu bila kuhisi kinyaa.
D. hakuna punguani apendaye kushika uchafu.

43. Kulingana na kifungu, mambo makuu yanayowaathiri watoto ni
A shida zao kutotambuliwa, kutoshauriwa, kutoshirikishwa katika maamuzi
B. kujiamulia mambo, kupuuzwa, kunyanyaswa.
C. kuwaambaa, kuwazibia pua, kuyajali

maslahi yao

D. kutowasomesha, kutoyajali matakwa yao, kuwaona kama punguani

44. Vitendo vya watoto havipaswi kudharauliwa kwa kuwa
A. ni njia ya kuondoa hasira zao

B. ni kuonyesha kuwa wameonewa makaoni

C. ni kuonyesha kuwa wanadharauliwa nyumbani
D. ni njia ya kutaka kuelezea matatizo yao

45. Kulingana na kifungu hiki, ni sentensi ipi ambayo si sahihi?
A. Wachache hujisuta nafsi na kutafuta chanzo cha shida za watoto
B. Wachache huwafungia pua na kuchepuka

C. Kuzurura mitaani kutasababisha watoto kupotoshana
D. Watoto wakiwa pamoja wanaweza kufanya makubwa.

 

 

 

 

46. Kwa mujibu wa taarifa hii, suluhisho la tatizo la

K.C.P.E REVISION 237

watoto wa mitaani ni

A. kusaidiwa ili waweze kujirekebisha

B. kupewa kila wakitakacho

C. kupewa makao na kusomeshwa

D. kusaidiwa kila wanapotaka msaada.

47. Maana ya tusije tukayaona ya Firauni ni

B. Utatuzi wa visanga nchini

C. Usipoziba ufa utajenga ukuta

D. Akumulikaye mchana usiku hukuchoma.

A. mambo mengi zaidi yanaweza kuonekana

B. mambo yaliyotarajiwa yanaweza kutokea

C. mambo ya kusisimua yanaweza kuonekana

D. mambo makubwa zaidi yanaweza kutokea

48. Neno kina kama lilivyotumiwa katika kifungu ni

A. chenye shida

B. chenye uzito

C. cha kutisha

D. cha muda

49. Patashika maana yake ni

A. kupata na kushika

B. kuaibishana

C. kuvurugana

D. kupakazwa uchafu

50. Anwani inayofaa zaidi kuelezea kifungu hiki ni

A. Shida katika vituo vya polisi

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2006

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako Kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la Shule yako.

2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

INSHA BORA 2006

Malizia kwa;,

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 241 Alama iliyotunzwa 38

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2006

KISWAHILI

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo.
Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Kandamiza hakujua thamani 1 watoto 2 siku moja 3 na ulimwengu. Alizoea kuwatumikisha watoto wadogo kwa 4 kuwaajiri watu wazima asije akajiumiza kwa kuwalipa mishahara mikubwa. Siku moja mwanawe mmoja ambaye 5 kuyamudu masomo aliamua kuondoka nyumbani bila kuaga. Kandamiza alipogundua kuwa mwanawe 6 mjini alihuzunika mno. Moyoni Kandamiza alijua kuwa mtoto huyo 7 jinsi yeye alivyowafanya watoto wa wengine.

 

1. A. wa B. la C. za D. ya

2. A. sasa B. hadi C. tangu D. lau

3. A. alipofunzwa B. alikofunzwa C. aliofunzwa D. aliyefunzwa

4. A. kuchelewa B. kupenda C. kuchelea D. kupendelea

5. A. hawezi B. hakuweza C. hataweza D. hajaweza

6. A. ametoroka B. ametoroshwa C. ametorokea D. ametorosha

K.C7..P.AE.REaVnIgSeIOteNsa B. angemtesa C.24a2ngewatesa D. angeteswa

D. Viwakilishi

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

20. Methali inayotoa funzo kuwa: Jambo

16. “Ki” imetumiwaje katika sentensi: Mweni alipokuja alinipata nikifyeka.
A. Kuonyesha hali ya masharti

B. Kuonyesha hali ya kukanusha

C. Kuonyesha hali ya kuendelea

D. Kuonyesha hali ya udogo

 

17. Ni sentensi ipi sahihi?

A. Ndizi lililoletwa ni langu

B. Miti zilizopandwa zimeota

C. Zulia iliyonunuliwa ni zuri

D. Wema unaozungumziwa ni huu

 

18. Miongoni mwa sehemu hizi za mwili, ni sehemu ipi iliyo tofauti na zingine?
A. Paja

B. Kiganja

C. Pafu

D. Goti

 

19. Polepole, Vibaya, Alasiri, Njiani, ni

A. Vielezi

B. Vivumishi

C. Nomino

linaloonekana zito kwa mwingine laweza kuwa rahisi kwako, ni:
A. Bahati ya mwenzio usiilalie mlango wazi
B. Mzigo wa mwenzio ni kanda la usufi
C. Kila mwamba ngoma ngozi huvutia kwake
D. Ganda la muwa la jana chungu kaona kivuno.

21. Sentensi “Asingalikwenda kwake asubuhi asingalimkuta” ina maana kuwa:

A. Hakuenda kwake asubuhi lakini alimkuta

B. Alienda kwake asubuhi lakini hakumkuta

C. Alienda kwake asubuhi na akamkuta

D. Hakuenda kwake asubuhi wala hakumkuta

 

22. Ni maneno yapi ambayo yote ni viunganishi?

A. ila, ingawa, lakini, maadamu

B. huyu, hao, ovyo, na

C. ila, lakini, vizuri, wima

D. ingawa, isipokuwa, zuri, safi.

 

23. Kivumishi cha sifa kutokana na kitenzi angaa Ni:
A. Angaza
B. Angazia
C. Angavu
D. Angalau.

K.C.P.E REVISION 243

 

 

 

 

 

 

24. ⅞ kwa maneno ni:

A. Subui nane

B. Thumuni saba

C. Subui

D. Thumuni

 

25. Kisawe cha neno barobaro ni

A. Pesa

B. Funguo

C. Ndizi

D. Ngozi

 

28. Haya ni maumbo gani?

 

 

A. Pembe tatu, Mche, Duara

B. Pia, Mcheduara, Nusuduara

C. Pia, Mchemraba, Mcheduara

D. Pembe tatu, Pia, Nusuduara

A. Banati

B. Kijana

C. Mvulana

D. Shaibu

 

26. Nomino habari iko katika ngeli ya:

A. U – Zi

B. I –I

C. U -I

D. I – Zi

 

27. Tano ni kwa Chokaa. Kitita ni kwa

29. Chagua usemi halisi ufaao wa:

Bahati alisema kuwa angeenda nyumbani kupumzika
A. “Nimeenda nyumbani kupumzika”, Bahati alisema
B. “Niende nyumbani kupumzika”, Bahati alisema
C. “Nitaenda nyumbani kupumzika”, Bahati alisema
D. “Nilienda nyumbani kupumzika”, Bahati Alisema

30. Yapange maneno yafuatayo kulingana na jinsi yanavyotokea katika kamusi:
(i) Bandika (ii) Beua

(iii) Birika (iv) Baidika

A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

C. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

D. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali 31 mpaka 40.

Huko Tujueni aliishi mtu kwa jina Mkazeni. Mkazeni alikuwa maarufu katika kutabiri ndoto. Alijulikana pia kwa kuyadadisi mambo yaliyozuka humo kijijini mwao. Kwake kulifurika watu ambao aliwahudumia bila malipo.

Wakati fulani Mkazeni alioteshwa kuwa kulikuwa na magari na matrela ambayo yalikuwa yakisimamishwa humo kijijini. Madereva wake walikuwa watu waliojaa wadudu tele mwilini. Madereva hao walikuwa wakiwalaghai vijana kijijini huku wakiwaachia “zawadi” zilizoleta “vilio”. Alipowaeleza wanakijiji wakamcheka na kumwambia, “Sasa nguvu zako za utabiri zinapotea. Utawezaje kufikiria kuwa magari hayo yataleta balaa?

Magari hubeba mali!”

Ingawa maneno hayo yalisemwa kiutaniutani, yalimchoma maini, akaamua kufyata ulimi na kukaza nia yake.
Alijitahidi kuihimiza aila yake kuhusu umuhimu wa tabia njema.

Siku nyingine tena akaota ndoto kuwa huko Tujueni kumeingia joka kubwa lililowameza vijana wengi. Ingawa wanakijiji walikuwa wamempuuza hapo awali; aliwafafanulia ndoto hiyo nao wakazidi kumcheka. “Sasa tena utabiri umeleta mambo ya nyoka? Tangu uzaliwe umewahi kumwona nyoka kama huyo?” Hapo Mkazeni akaona amedharauliwa kupita kiasi, akaamua “kujimezea” utabiri wake mwenyewe, lake liwe jicho tu. Watu ambao waliamua kutojihadhari kabla ya hatari, angewafanya nini? Kidole kimoja kingevunjaje chawa?

Miaka michache ikapita, nayo magari na matrela ya kikweli yakafika pale na kupafanya kituo cha mapumziko. Madereva wakaiona sehemu hiyo ikiwa na starehe nyingi. Tujueni ikajulikana. Biashara madukani na kwenye masoko zikaongezeka.

Baadhi ya watu waliokuwa wamempuuza Mkazeni wakasema, “Oneni mtabiri yule na ndoto zake. Maafa

aliyoyatabiri ni hizi pesa tunazozipata? Alitaka tufe maskini? Muone sasa, amenyamaza jii kama maji ya mtungi. Anasema anaihubiria familia yake isijihusishe na biashara haramu. Biashara gani haramu hapa? Cha kupata si cha kuiba.”

Baada ya muda, familia nyingi zikaanza kulia. Utabiri ukaja kutokea kweli. Wadudu walikuwa ni UKIMWI na joka likawa maangamizi yaliyoletwa na madhara ya UKIMWI. Wanakijiji waliathirika na kujuta. Kituo hicho cha biashara kikawa na sifa mbaya. Watu wengi wakafa na biashara ikazidi kufifia.

Mkazeni akawa anasikitishwa na matokeo ya mapuuza na tamaa za wanadamu. Kwake yeye na familia yake

K.Cw.aPl.iEenRdEeVlIeSaIOkNuishi vyema kinidhamu.

246

31. Mkazeni alikuwa karimu kwa sababu

A. alitabiri mambo mengi bila chuki

B. aliwatabiria watu inambo bila kuwalipisha

C. watu wengi walimwendea kwa utabiri

D. watu wengi walimdharau lakini hakulipiza

32. UKIMWI ndotoni unaweza kulinganishwa na:

A. wadudu na joka kubwa

B. matrela na madereva

C. madereva wenye wadudu

D. vijana wenye wadudu

33. Wanakijiji wanaposema, “Sasa nguvu zako za utabiri zinapotea” wanamaanisha:
A. Mkazeni si mtabiri tena

B. wanaushuku utabiri wa Mkazeni

C. hawautaki utabiri wa Mkazeni

D. Mkazeni hutabiri yasiyo ya kweli

34. Biashara madukani ziliongezeka kwa sababu

A. watu wengi walikuja kutafuta utabiri wa Mkazeni
B. kulikuwa na starehe nyingi katika masoko

C. Tujueni ilikuwa kituo cha mapumziko cha madereva wa matrela
D. Tujueni ilijulikana na madereva wa matrela

makubwa.

35. Watu wengi wa Tujueni walikuwa ni:

A. wenye tamaa na watabiri

B. wapuuzaji na watabiri

C. wenye tamaa na malezi bora

D. wapuuzaji na wenye tamaa

36. Kulingana na taarifa hii, UKIMWI uliendelezwa sana na:
A. madereva wa magari na matrela

B. wafanyibiashara wenye matrela na magari

C. madereva wapitiao katika vituo vya biashara
D. wazazi wenye tamaa ya kupata mali

37. Baada ya Mkazeni kupuuzwa tena alichukua hatua zipi?
A. Alitabiri mara ya pili na kungojea matokeo

B. Alibishana na wapuuzaji na kuwapa matokeo
C. Aliwaangalia tu waliompuuza na kuendelea kutabiri
D. Alinyamaza, akaongoza familia na kungoja matokeo.

 

38. Kutojihadhari kabla ya hatari ni sawa na:

A. kutojitayarisha kukabiliana na tatizo

B. kutoshughulika na hatari

C. kutoshughulikia matatizo yajapo

D. kutoogopa madhara ya tatizo.

39. Familia ya Mkazeni ilinusurika kwa kuwa:

A. ilikuwa ikifundishwa kuhusu utabiri

B. haikufanya biashara na madereva

C. ilizingatia maadili na mashauri

D. Mkazeni alikuwa mtabiri

40. Kichwa kifaacho zaidi kuelezea kifungu hiki ni:

A. Mkazeni wa Tujueni na utabiri wake

B. Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu

C. UKIMWI utaangamiza watu wengi

D. Mchelea mwana kulia hulia mwenyewe

 

 

 

 

 

 

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50.

 

Maendeleo ya nchi hutegemea mchango na juhudi za kila mwananchi. Hata hivyo ni jambo la kusikitisha kuona kuwa baadhi yetu tuna fikira zisizo za kizalendo kuwa wengine ndio wanaopasa kuiendeleza nchi. Watu wa aina hii hutarajia serikali kuwafanyia hili na lile. Hawathubutu kujiuliza, je, mimi nimeifanyia nini nchi
yangu?

Inafaa tukumbuke kwamba nchi ni kama chombo cha usafiri na kila mtu ana wajibu wa kuhakikisha kwamba chombo hicho kimekwenda ipasavyo. Tunahitaji kuwa na bidii za mchwa za kujenga kichuguu. Tuwe na umoja wa nyuki ambao, japo ni viumbe wadogo hudiriki kutengeneza asali ambayo huwafaa wao na
kuwalisha binadamu. Ikiwa vidudu hivi vinaweza kuilisha jumuiya, sembuse sisi?

 

Mungu amemtunukia kila mmoja wetu vipawa anuwai. Ni juu yetu kuvitumia vipawa hivi kuinua uchumi wa nchi. Tukijitahidi pamoja tutaweza kutatua matatizo mengi yanayoikumba nchi. Tukumbuke kwamba kinga na kinga ndipo moto uwakapo. Wananchi katika nyanja mbalimbali hawana budi kuziimarisha nyanja hizi ili kuinua hali zao za maisha. Mathalani, wakulima watumie njia za kisasa za ukulima ili kuzalisha mazao mengi. Wakifanya hivyo, tutaweza kukabiliana na baa la njaa ambalo linawadhuru wananchi wengi.

Vijana nao wana jukumu lao kwa taifa. Wewe kama mwanafunzi, unaweza kuchangia maendeleo ya nchi hii kwa kushiriki kikamilifu katika shughuli zote za shule. Ujibidiishe vilivyo, si katika masomo pekee, lakini pia katika michezo. Kwa kuiendeleza michezo ya riadha na hata ya kuigiza, utakuwa umeiendeleza nchi kwa kuukuza utamaduni wako. Isitoshe, unaweza kushiriki katika shughuli za kuzoa taka katika mtaa ulio karibu na shule yako. Ukifanya hivyo utakuwa umeitikia wito wa serikali wa kuhifadhi mazingira.

Sehemu za mashambani zinahitaji kushughulikiwa kimaendeleo. Licha ya kuwa sehemu nyingi zina rutuba, vijana wengi baada ya kupata masomo huhiari kuhamia mijini kutafuta kazi zenye hadhi.
Mashamba yameachiwa wazee na bila shaka mazao yamekuwa haba. Hebu tujiulize, je, ikiwa sisi vijana
tutaziacha sehemu zetu na kuhamia kwingine, nani atakayeziauni? Je, hatujui kuwa chetu ni chetu na
K.Cn.gPu.EoRyEaVkISuIOazNima haifai chochote? Ni vyema tukumbu2k4e9 kuwa ikiwa tunataka kusaidiwa kuendeleza sehemu zetu, ni lazima sisi wenyewe tuwe tayari kuzitumikia kwani abebwaye hujikaza. Mapenzi kwa nchi ni muhimu mno. Shime tuungane kuijenga nchi yetu.

C. wakiwa na umoja na bidii wanaweza

41. Maendeleo ya nchi yanahitaji

A. kushughulika kila mara katika kilimo

B. ushirikiano wa kila mwananchi

C. kutotarajia serikali kufanya lolote

D. watu wengine kuendeleza nchi

42. Watu walio na fikira za kizalendo ni wale:

A. wanaotarajia kusaidiwa kila mara

B. wanaowataka wengine kushughulikia miradi ya maendeleo
C. wasiojua wameifanyia nini nchi

D. wasiopuuza wajibu wao katika kuendeleza nchi

43. Nchi ni kama chombo cha usafiri kwa sababu:

A. wananchi wasipoiendeleza nchi itazorota

B. bila chombo usafiri haufanikiwi

C. wananchi wasiporudi mashambani nchi itazorota
D. bila wasafiri nchi haifanikiwi

44. Binadamu wanalinganishwa na nyuki kwani

A. wakiwa na bidii nyingi wanaweza kujifaidi wao na wengine
B. nyuki wana umoja japo ni viumbe wadogo

kujifaidi wao na wengine

D. nyuki na mchwa wana bidii za kujenga.

45. Katika kifungu, matendo yanayoonyesha ukweli wa methali, “Kinga na kinga ndipo moto uwakapo” ni:
A. vijana kuzoa taka na sote kushiriki katika michezo
B. wote kurudi mashambani na kulima kwa bidii
C. vijana kudumisha utamaduni na kuimarisha elimu
D. ushirikiano wa nyuki na wananchi kujitahidi pamoja

46. Kulingana na kifungu, matatizo mengi yatatatuliwa iwapo
A. tutafanya kazi kwa pamoja bila kuzingatia tofauti zetu
B. sote tutakuwa na vipawa tofauti tofauti

C. sote tutajibidiisha katika masomo yetu

D. tutatarajia misaada kuinua hali za maisha yetu.

50. Ikiwa vidudu hivi vinaweza kulisha jumuiya,

sembuse sisi? maana yake ni

47. Vijana

A. wanapaswa tu kushughulikia masomo

B. wanapaswa kusoma ili kukuza utamaduni

C. wanapaswa kushiriki kuiimarisha nchi katika nyanja mbalimbali
D. wanapaswa kushirikiana wao kwa wao kujiinua na kuimarisha kilimo

48. Kulingana na kifungu maana ya kazi zenye

A. nyuki wanaweza kulisha watu wengi

B. binadamu ana uwezo wa kushirikiana

C. nyuki wana ushirikiano kuliko binadamu

D. binadamu wana nguvu za kuzalisha kuliko nyuki

hadhi ni:

A. kazi zinazolipa mishahara mikubwa

B. kazi zinazofikiriwa kuwa bora kuliko za shambani
C. kazi zenye marupurupu mengi kuliko za shambani
D. kazi za walio na elimu ya juu

49. Kulingana na kifungu hiki, abebwaye hujikaza

ina maana:

A. unaposaidiwa lazima nawe pia ujitahidi

B. ukibebwa mgongoni usilegee kamwe

C. tusitarajie kusaidiwa bila kusaidia

D. tukiwasaidia wengine lazima tujitahidi

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2007

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako Kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la Shule yako.

2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

INSHA BORA 2007

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 254

Alama iliyotunzwa , 38.

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Kilimo ni sekta muhimu 1 . Baada ya mimea kuchipuka, mkulima hana budi 2 ili kuikinga dhidi ya magugu na vimelea vingine ambavyo 3 vikawa hatari kwa mimea. 4 pia huendelezwa katika sehemunyingine. Wanyama hawa huogeshwa ndani ya 5 ili kuwaua wadudu waharibifu.
Kilimo kikiendelezwa sehemu za mashambani tutapunguza 6 mijini wa watu wanaotafuta kazi. Vijana wanaokipuuza kilimo watiwe 7 kuzistawisha sehemu zao.

 

 

1. A. kati ya nchi B. katika nchini C. katika nchi D. kati ya nchini

2. A. kuipogoa B. kuipalilia C. kuipura D. kuipulizia

3. A. huja B. vimekuja C. vimeenda D. huenda

4. A. Ufugaji B. Ufungaji C. Uwekaji D. Uwekezaji

5. A. vidimbwi B. majosho C. mito D. maziwa

6. A. uhamaji B. uhamishaji C. uhamishwaji D. uhamiaji

7. A. hima B. hamnazo C. shime D. kapuni

Msichana alikuwa amechoshwa na vitimbi vya kasri 8 shangazi yake ambaye alikuwa amemtoa
K.C.P.E REVISION 255
kijijini kuja kumpeleka shule. 9 alikuwa na nia ya kumfanya 10 . Hakujua amlaumu shangazi yake
huyu, 11 majaliwa 12 wazazi wake na kumwacha yatima. Alikumbuka jinsi 13 na matumaini ya kusoma kwa bidii ili kuiokoa jamii 14 kutokana na umaskini 15 hali zao.

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

16. Ni tashbihi ipi inayoafikiana na maelezo:

“Kutokeza na kuendelea vizuri kwa haraka”?

A. Chipuka kama majani

B. Chanua kama waridi

C. Chanua kama mgomba

D. Chipuka kama uyoga

 

17. Kitenzi nawa katika kauli ya kutendesha ni:

A. nawika

B. nawia

C. navya

D. nawishwa

 

18. Chagua wingi wa:

Baharia huyu hodari ni mgeni huku kwangu.

A. Baharia hawa hodari ni wageni huku kwetu.

B. Mabaharia hawa hodari ni wageni huku kwetu.

C. Mabaharia hawa hodari ni wageni huku kwangu.

D. Baharia hawa hodari ni wageni huku kwangu.

 

19. Chagua maneno ambayo yote ni vihisishi.

A. Ala, Ee, Wee, Lo

B. Vile, Lo, Simile, Mashalla

C. Jamani, Huree, Ingawa, Isipokuwa

D. Vyema, Ila, Inshalla, Aaa

20. Chagua sentensi iliyo na kivumishi cha sifa.

A. Mwanafunzi ameandika insha nyingine.

B. Daktari amewatibu wagonjwa watatu.

C. Mpishi amepika chakuia kibichi.

D. Mtoto yule anaweza kukimbia.

 

21. Chagua jibu ambalo ni nomino ya dhahania

A. Wayo

B. Umati

C. Mate

D. Wema

22. Salamu “Alamsiki” hujibiwaje?

A. Bi nuru

B. Subahalkheri

C. Salama

D. Masalkheri

 

23. Chagua usemi halisi wa:

Mwalimu aliwauliza kama wangeandika insha siku hiyo jioni.
A. “Mtaandika insha kesho jioni?” Mwalimu aliwauliza.
B. “Kesho jioni mngeandika insha?” Mwalimu aliwauliza.
C. “Mtaandika insha leo jioni?” Mwalimu aliwauliza.

D. “Leo jioni mngeandika insha?” Mwalimu aliwauliza.

 

24. Jina wanaloitana ndugu wa kike na wa kiume ni

A. somo

B. umbu

C. mnuna

D. kaka

 

25. Chagua vielezi katika sentensi: Alisimama wima na kumwita kwa sauti
A. Alisimama, kumwita

B. na, kumwita

C. wima, kwa sauti

D. kumwita, sauti

 

26. Tegua kitendawili

Baba akipiga mbizi huibuka na ndevu nyeupe.

A. Muwa

B. Kinu

C. Mbegu

D. Mwiko

 

27. Pesa za ziada anazolipwa mkopeshaji ni:

A. riba

B. ada

C. mshahara

D. ridhaa

 

28. Maana ya methali:

“Ganda la muwa la jana chungu kaona kivuno” ni:
A. Jambo ambalo unaliona rahisi kwako kwa mwenzako huenda likawa gumu.
B. Haifai kudharau kitu chako duni kwa kutamani cha mwenzako.
C. Haifai kuwadharau watu waliokusaidia hapo awali, huenda ukawahitaji baadaye.
D. Kitu unachokiona duni kwako, huenda kikawa na manufaa kwa mtu mwingine.

29. Jaza pengo kwa kiunganishi kifaacho. Nitakusaidia utahitaji msaada wangu.
A. lakini

B. ingawa

C. iwapo

D. japo

 

30. Mtu anayeihama nchi yake na kununua ardhi na kuishi nchi nyingine ni:
A. mkimbizi

B. mlowezi

C. mtoro

D. msaliti

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31 – 40.

 

Nilizaliwa na kulelewa katika familia iliyotajika. Baba yangu Mlajasho alikuwa tajiri wa mali na moyo. Mimi na ndugu yangu mdogo hatukujua maana ya uhitaji kwani baba alitukidhia mahitaji yetu yote. Nyumbani mwetu kila siku mlishiba na kutapika watu wa kila sampuli waliokuja kulilia hali kwa baba. Baba aliwasabilia kwa mengi. Kuna waliopewa ruzuku mbalimbali za vyakula, kuna waliopewa vibarua mashambani na waliofanya kazi pale nyumbani. Almuradi kila mwana kijiji alifaidika kutokana na mkono wazi wa baba. Ndugu yangu mdogo hakuisha kuwabughudhi waja hawa na kuwaita waegemea nundu.

 

Siku zilisonga na kupita kama maji ya mto; hata nikajipata katika shule ya msingi. Niliyakumbatia masomo yangu kwa hamu kubwa. Sikuwa na wakati wa kufanya ajizi, kwani baba, pamoja na pato lake nono, hakuwahi kudekeza hisia za ugoigoi. Nasi ilibidi tufuate nyayo zake; kwani mwana akibebwa hutazama kisogo cha nina. Nilifanya mtihani wangu wa darasa la nane na kuvuna nilichopanda. Asubuhi baada ya kutangazwa kwa matokeo ya mtihani huo, niliamshwa na sauti ya, “pongezi mwanangu,” kutoka kwa baba. Baba alikuwa amebeba gazeti la siku hiyo, usoni amevaa tabasamu kubwa. Sikuamini maneno yake. Nilimnyang’anya gazeti na ikawa kweli mwenye macho haambiwi tazama. Nilikuwa mwanafunzi bora nchini. Nilijiunga na shule mojawapo ya kitaifa.

Siku nilipokivuka kizingiti cha lango la shule ya kitaifa ya Tindi ndipo maisha yangu yalipoanza kuingia ufa.
Nilikutana na Tamasha, mwanafunzi mchangamfu na mcheshi. Alijitambulisha kuwa alisomea shule iliyokuwa jirani na ile yangu ya msingi. Urafiki shakiki ukazaliwa kati yake nami. Tukawa daima tunaandamana. Hayo hayakunitia shaka, kwani Tamasha alinihimiza kila mara nitie bidii masomoni. Hata hivyo, siku zilivyosonga ndivyo tabia yake halisi ilivyonibainikia.

Jioni moja Tamasha alikuja chumbani mwangu akiwa amebeba unga aliouita dawa ya homa. Aliniambia nijaribu kutibu homa ambayo ilikuwa imenikaba kwa siku ayami. Nami, kwa kutotaka kumvunja rafiki yangu, nikachukua unga huo na kuutia kinywani; ingawa kwa kweli mwalimu wetu alikuwa ametuonya dhidi ya kutumia dawa zozote bila maelekezo ya daktari. Unga huu haukuitibu homa yangu, ila ulinipa utulivu mkubwa wa akili, utulivu ambao sikuwa nimewahi kuushuhudia maishani.

Tamasha alifika chumbani mwangu usiku kunijulia hali. Alinipata nimejituliza juu ya kitanda changu. Alinisalimu na kukenua kama aliyetarajia jawabu fulani kutoka kwangu. Nilimweleza hali yangu naye akaniambia kuwa hivyo ndivyo dawa hiyo ifanyavyo kazi; kwamba amekuwa akiitumia kwa muda, hata nyakati za mtihani; naye hupata nguvu za kukabiliana na majabali yote. Alinielekeza kwa Mzee Kamaliza ambaye ndiye aliyekuwa akimuuzia unga huo. Kuanzia siku hiyo nikawa mteja mwaminifu wa Kamaliza. Nilitumia unga huu bila fikira nikidhani kuwa ilikuwa dawa ya homa tu! Sikujua ilikuwa dawa ya kulevya; na Tamasha alikuwa mraibu sugu wa dawa hiyo na nyingine nyingi! “Uzuri wake huu ni wa mkakasi tu?” Nilijiuliza. “Laiti ningalijua”. Hata hivyo maswali yote haya hayakuwa na faida tena. Nilikuwa tayari nimezama katika tatizo sugu la

Km.Ca.tPu.mE RizEi VyaISdIOaNwa za kulevya.

259

Nilijisuta moyoni kwa matumizi ya dawa za kulevya ambayo yalielekea kuyagongesha mwamba maisha yangu

31. Mambo yanayoonyesha kuwa Mlajasho alikuwa tajiri wa mali na moyo ni:
A. Kukidhi mahitaji ya wana, watu kumlilia hali.

B. Kukidhi mahitaji ya wana, kuwapa watu riziki.
C. Kukidhi mahitaji ya wana, kumkanya mwanawe.
D. Kukidhi mahitaji ya wana, watu kumfuata kwake.

32. “Ndugu yangu mdogo hakuisha kuwabughudhi waja hawa na kuwaita waegemea nundu”,

B. maisha ya msimulizi yaliporomoka.

C. maisha ya msimulizi yalianza kubadilika

D. maisha ya msimulizi yaliharibika

35. Msimulizi hakutaka kuacha “unga” kwa sababu:

A. alikuwa amezoea uraibu wa Kamaliza

B. hakutaka kumuudhi Tamasha

C. alichelea kuondolewa kundini na wenzake

D. alichelea kudunishwa na wenzake.

inaonyesha kuwa ndugu mdogo alikuwa

A. mwenye uzushi

B. mwenye kujisifu

C. mwenye mapuuza

D. mwenye uchoyo

33. Msimulizi alisoma kwa hamu kwa kuwa

A. alipenda masomo yake

B. baba yake alikuwa mkali

C. baba yake alikuwa mwenye bidii

D. alitaka kufuata nyayo za ndugu yake.

 

34. Kifungu “ndipo maisha yangu yalipoanza kuingia ufa” kinamaanisha:
A. maisha ya msimulizi yalianza kupata matatizo
K.C.P.E REVISION 260

36. Mambo yanayoonyesha kuwa kifungu hiki kinapinga matumizi ya dawa za kulevya ni:

A. msimulizi kufukuzwa shule, msimulizi kujiunga na wanaopinga matumizi mabaya ya dawa shuleni.
B. walimu kumshauri msimulizi, mama pamoja na
mwalimu mkuu kumwonya msimulizi shuleni.

C. Kamaliza kuacha kuuza dawa, mama kumshauri msimulizi.
D. walimu kugundua tatizo la msimulizi, msimulizi
kuaibika shuleni.

37. Kulingana na kifungu hiki, jamii inakabiliana na tatizo la matumizi mabaya ya dawa kwa:
A. kuwapeleka watoto shuleni, matajiri kuwasaidia watu
B. ushirikiano kati ya wazazi na walimu, kuwajibika kwa vijana
C. ushirikiano kati ya wazazi na walimu, kuaibika kwa vijana
D. wazazi kwenda shuleni wanapoitwa, kuwajibika kwa vijana

38. Methali ambayo haifai kujumlisha ujumbe wa taarifa hii ni:
A. nazi mbovu harabu ya nzima

B. mchezea tope humrukia

C. mwegemea nundu haachi kunona

D. mchovya asali hachovyi mara moja
K.C.P.E REVISION 261

39. “Uzuri wake huu ni wa mkakasi tu?” ina maana Tamasha:
A. alikuwa mcheshi

B. alikuwa mnafiki

C. hakuweza kuaminika

D. hakuweza kutegemewa

40. Msimulizi alikuwa “sikio la kufa” kwa sababu:

A. hakupona homa baada ya kutumia unga

B. hakuacha uraibu wake baada ya kuonywa na baba na mwalimu
C. alifumaniwa na naibu wa mwalimu mkuu akipiga maji
D. alipata adhabu aliyotarajia baada ya kupiga maji

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50.

Mafunzo ya kuimarisha maadili katika jamii ni muhimu. Kinyume na hapo awali, sasa maadili ya jamii zetu yanazoroteka kwa kasi sana kiasi cha kushangaza. Mwingiliano mwingi kati ya mataifa ya Kiafrika na ya kigeni unaweza kuleta upungufu wa maadili. Watu wengi hufikiria kuwa upotovu wa maadili ndio ustaarabu ufaao. Kusifu na kuziiga nyendo mbaya huchangia upalilizi wa uozo wa tabia. Hali hii inaweza kuzifuja nchi hizi.

Ni dhahiri shahiri kuwa umaskini wa nchi umewafanya vijana kwa wazee kutamani na kuzitafuta njia za mkato za kujitajirisha. Kwa kuingiwa na tamaa nyingi, wao huanzisha miradi ya kifisadi. Watu hao hufanya juu chini kutafuta mianya ya kujipenyezea fedha. Wao hufanya haya bila ya kujali madhara yanayoletwa na hizo pilkapilka zao. Hongo huzidi kuendelezwa ili kuficha hizo njama ambazo huwa hatari kwa usalama wa nchi na watu wake.

Tamaa ikikithiri mpaka, bongo za fisadi hao hazitulii bali huenda kwa haraka isiyomithilika. Watu hujikweza wakitaka kuwafikia na kuwapita waliowatangulia kiuchumi. Mathalani, watu ambao hivi majuzi walionekana hoi ama watu wa kawaida, ghafla huonekana watu wa kuishi kitajiri huku wakijijengea majumba ya ghorofa katika mitaa ya kifahari. Kama hali hiyo ingeletwa na kushukiwa na nyota ya jaha, ungeelewa. Lakini kama utajiri huo unatokana na kufurisha mifuko kwa kuleta shoti ofisini, wakitumia wizi wa kalamu au kula mlungula, itabidi utiliwe shaka na kulaaniwa. Vijana ambao ndio wajenzi wa taifa wa leo na kesho wanapaswa kuvipuuza vitendo hivyo kwa sababu vinadhalilisha utu wa jamii.

Serikali nyingi za Kiafrika hutafuta mikakati ya kukabiliana na ufisadi ili ziimarishe maadili.
Mojawapo ya hiyo mikakati ni hatua ya serikali ya kuwahimiza wananchi kujaza fomu kuonyesha jumla ya rasilimali zao. Hata hivyo wahusika katika ufisadi hutafuta vizingiti vya kuzizuia juhudi hizo za serikali.

Ni bayana kuwa mtu hawezi kushindana na mkono mrefu wa serikali. Juhudi za kukomesha vituko vya ufisadi zimeanza kuzaa matunda. Tayari vielelezo vya kupambana na ufisadi vimeanza kujidhihirisha vyenyewe. Hivi majuzi vituko vya kujenga nyumba hafifu hapa nchini vilifuatiliwa unyounyo na wahusika kufunguliwa mashtaka; hasa baada ya watu kupoteza maisha yao na wengine kulemazwa walipoangukiwa na nyumba hizo. Kwa mfano, watu waliodai kuwa watajenga ghorofa tatu, walibadili nia na kujenga ghorofa zaidi. Walifanya hivyo baada ya kupata vibali vya pembe za chaki. Isitoshe, kwa kutaka kutajirika haraka walinunua na kuvitumia vifaa duni kinyume na kanuni za uhandisi. Mambo kama
haya hujitokeza katika nchi nyingi barani Afrika. Nchi hizi sasa zimeamka na kukaza kamba katika

Kk.Cu.Pu.pEinRgEaVISIONufisadi huu.

262

44. Utajiri unaotiliwa shaka ni ule:

41. Nchi zetu zinazidi kuharibiwa na:

A. kufuata ustaarabu wa kigeni na kupuuza maadili
B. wananchi wapendao maadili ya mataifa yao

C. vijana wanaoigiza maadili yafaayo

D. kutoelewa vizuri maana ya maadili

42. Chagua maelezo yaliyo sawa kulingana na aya ya pili.
A. Njama za ufisadi zinailetea nchi matatizo.

B. Usalama wa nchi hautegemei pilkapilka za fisadi.
C. Maskini wote wanatafuta njama za kujitajirisha
kifisadi.

D. Njia za mkato zatajirisha nchi upesi

43. Ushahidi kuwa ufisadi upo ni:

A. kuwapo na kuziiga nyendo za kigeni

B. kupatikana kwa haraka kwa mambo ya kifahari
C. kujenga majumba makubwa na ya kifahari katika
mitaa bora

A. wa kuigwa na watu wote

B. usio na wizi wa kalamu

C. wa njama za uharibifu

D. upendwao na vijana nchini

45. Kushukiwa na nvota ya jaha ni sawa na:

A. mchezo wa bahati nasibu

B. kupewa zawadi kwa kushinda

C. kupata kwa haraka

D. kubahatika kihalali

46. Kulingana na taarifa hii, mawazo ya fisadi:

A. yanaimarisha nchi kiuchumi kwa kutajirika

B. hayazingatii utamaduni wa wote

C. hutafuta njia mbalimbali za kujitajirisha

D. yanatamani maadili ya watangulizi wao

47. Upalilizi wa uozo wa tabia huendelezwa kwa:

A. kupenda na kuzifuata tabia za kifisadi

B. kufikiria tu juu ya upotovu wa maadili

C. kusifu na kuzifuata nyendo zote za kigeni

D. mwingiliano wa binadamu katika ustaarabu

48. Madhara makuu yanayoweza kupata jamii ya kifungu ni:
A. vijana kuupenda na kuuiga utamaduni wa kigeni
B. umaskini mkubwa unaorudisha nchi nyuma kiuchumi
C. watu kuingilia njama za kifisadi kwa kutaka kutajirika
D. maangamizi yanayoletwa na watu wenye njama za kifisadi

49. Mwandishi wa taarifa hii ana msimamo kuwa:
A. ustaarabu wote wa kigeni unapotosha maadili
B. maadili yatafaulishwa na vijana na serikali husika
C. uigaji wa nyendo za kigeni unapaswa kuzuiwa
D. ujenzi wa ghorofa duni na njama za kifisadi zimezidi

50. Kifungu hiki kinaweza kufupishwa kwa kutumia methali:

A. mwacha mila ni mtumwa

B. mla nawe hafi nawe ila mzaliwa nawe

C. tamaa mbele mauti nyuma

D. vyote ving’aavyo si dhahabu

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2008

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako Kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la shule yako.

2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 266

Alama iliyotunzwa 33

KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2008

KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA KWANZA: LUGHA

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

 

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Kwa _1_Kiswahili ni lugha ya Kiafrika ambayo imeenea kote. Wenyeji asilia _2_wakiongea lugha hii_3 _
awali ni

Waswahili. Waswahili wanapatikana kote katika upwa mzima _4_ pwani ya Afrika Mashariki. Kwa muda mrefu

Kiswahili _5 _ humu nchini lakini mambo yamebadilika. Lugha hii sasa imepewa hadhi kubwa _6_ nyanja mbalimbali
nchini. Lugha hii _ 7_ pakubwa kuwaunganisha wananchi na kudumisha amani. Wakenya wengi wamejitolea kuikuza

lugha hii yao na hawataki tena _8_.

 

1. A. sababu B. hivyo C. hakika D. vile

 

2. A. wamekuwa B. waliokuwa C. watakaokuwa D. wangekuwa

 

3. A. tangu B. hadi C. hata D. mpaka

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

19. Chagua kinyume cha sentensi:

16. Chagua usemi wa taarifa ulio sahihi wa “Kilele cha Mlima Kenya kina theluji nyingi.” Fatuma akasema.
A Fatuma alisema kwamba kilele cha Mlima Kenya kilikuwa na theluji nyingi.
B. Fatuma anasema kwamba kilele cha Mlima Kenya

Musa alisifiwa kwa utiifu wake.

A. Musa hakusifiwa kwa utiifu wake.

B. Musa alikashifiwa kwa utundu wake.

C. Musa alikashifiwa kwa ukaidi wake.

D. Musa hakukashifiwa kwa ukaidi wake.

 

20. Methali yenye maana sawa na

huwa na theluji nyingi.

C. Fatuma akasema kwamba kilele cha Mlima Kenya
kimekuwa na theluji nyingi.

D. Fatuma alisema kwamba kilele cha Mlima Kenya kingekuwa na theluji nyingi.

17. Ni sentensi ipi inayoonyesha matumizi sahihi ya
Lau?

A. Lau mwanafunzi anapopita mtihani hutuzwa.

B. Lau ungekuja ningekusaidia.

C. Nipe lau kitabu kimoja nisome.

D. Nitakujuza Iau hutaki kujua.

 

18. Chagua jibu linaloonyesha aina za mashairi.

A. Tarbia, Takhmisa

B. Tarbia, Mizani

C. Vina, Takhmisa

D. Takhmisa, Mishororo

“usiache mbachao kwa msala upitao” ni

A. usione kwenda mbele kurudi nyuma si kazi

B. bahati ya mwenzio usiilalie mlango wazi

C. usipoziba ufa utajenga ukuta

D. bura yangu siibadili na rehani.

 

21 .Jogoo in kwa koo, fahali ni kwa

A. ndama

B. kipora .

C. tembe

D. Mtamba

 

22. Chagua aina ya pambo ambalo huvaliwa miguuni.

A. Kipete

B. Kidani

C. Kikuku

D. Kikuba

K.C.P.E REVISION 269

23. Umoja wa sentensi “Waungwana wowote hawawezi

kutufanyia fujo” ni

A. Muungwana yeyote hawezi kutufanyia fujo.

B. Muungwana yeyote hawezi kunifanyia fujo.

C. Muungwana yoyote hawezi kunifanyia fujo.

D. Muungwana yoyote hawezi kutufanyia fujo.

 

 

 

 

 

 

24. Chagua sentensi ambayo ni muungano sahihi wa hizi:

Mburukenge aliingia uwanjani. Mburukenge aliwafadhaisha wanafunzi.
A. Mburukenge aliingia uwanjani na kuwafadhaisha

wanafunzi.

B. Mburukenge aliingia uwanjani kwa kuwafadhaisha wanafunzi.
C. Mburukenge aliingia uwanjani lakini aliwafadhaisha wanafunzi.
D. Mburukenge aliingia uwanjani kwani aliwafadhaisha wanafunzi.

25. Kumpiga mtu vijembe ni

A. kumpa sifa asizostahili

B. kumsema kwa mafumbo

C. kumchafulia mtu jina

D. kumfanyia ishara ya dharau.

 

26. Ugonjwa wa ukambi pia huitwa

A. surua

B. safura

C. ndui

D. tetewanga

 

27. Sahihisha: Kule mlikolima hamna rutuba

A. Kule mlipolima hamna rutuba

B. Pale mlipolima hamna rutuba

C. Kule mlikolima hakuna rutuba.

D. Mle mlimolima hakuna rutuba

 

28. Chagua nomino kutokana na kitenzi kumbuka

A. Kumbukika

B. Kumbukwa

C. Kumbusha

D. Kumbusho.

 

29. Umbu, mkoi, halati, wote ni

A. jamii

B. wakwe

C. jamaa

D. marafiki.

 

30. Kitendawili “Nikitembea yuko nikikimbia yuko, nikiingia ndani hayuko,” jibu lake ni
A. mwanga

B. kivuli

C. mwangwi

D. upepo

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31 – 40.

Uamuzi uliofanywa na serikali wa kuhimiza watoto wote warudi shuleni ni jambo mwafaka.
Watoto walifurika furifuri shuleni ili kusajiliwa. Wale waliokuwa wakirandaranda mitaani walifuatilizwa himahima na kupelekwa shule.
Waliokuwa wakubwa ki-umri walipelekwa kwenye shule za ufundi. Wakatabasamu kwa furaha kama mzazi aliyepata salama.

Kwa miaka mingi, baadhi ya wazazi walikuwa wameshindwa kuwasomesha wana wao. Hii ni kutokana na umaskini uliokithiri mipaka. Hali hiyo ilichangia huzuni kuu miongoni mwa familia. Pengo la waliosoma na wasiosoma lilizidi kuwa pana kielimu na kiuchumi. Uadui ukaingilia jamii. Ujambazi nao ukazidi.

Sasa watu wote wakipewa haki sawa ya kusoma, hata wale watoto wa maskini watamanio masomo watakinaisha kiu yao. Pia mengi ya matatizo yatapungua. Si kweli kuwa tajiri ni mwerevu kuliko mkata. Kila mwanajamii akipewa nafasi na asome kwa bidii atafua dafu maishani.

Vijana watakaofuzu katika shule za kiufundi wataweza kuajiriwa katika sekta mbalimbali.
Mwishowe wakipata mtaji watajiendeleza kwa kuanzisha miradi midogomidogo ya kujitegemea. Hali kama hii ikienea kote nchini viwanda vidogovidogo vitaanzishwa na ajira itapatikana. Hiyo itakuwa njia mojawapo kuu ya kuuinua uchumi na kuzalisha nafasi nyingi za kazi. Kitaaluma, hawa vijana wataweza kuwa madaktari, wasanii, walimu … na kazi zingine nyingi. Kisomo ni kitamu. Hakifai kutiliwa nanga.

31. Uamuzi uliofanywa na serikali

A. ulisababisha kufurika kwa watoto shuleni na kupita mitihani.
B. ulisababisha kuchipuka kwa vyuo vya ufundi na kuondoa umaskini.
C. ulisababisha kuongezeka kwa watoto shuleni na kupata nafasi ya kujiendeleza.
D. ulisababisha kupungua kwa umaskini na kuwapa watoto nafasi ya kujiendeleza

32. ….baadhi ya wazazi walikuwa wameshindwa kuwasomesha wana wao.
Chagua methali inayoweza kuelezea hali hii.

A. Maskini kupata ni mwenye nguvu kupenda.

B. Dau la mnyonge haliendi joshi.

C. Ngombe wa maskini hazai pacha.

D. Maskini halali mchana.

33. Ukosefu wa elimu unasababisha

A. umaskini, uadui, huzuni na ujambazi

B. wivu, ujambazi, kukosa kiu ya kusoma na uadui
C. utajiri, ukosefu wa kazi, huzuni na ujambazi

D. ujambazi, wivu, utajiri na kiu ya kusoma.

34. Kulingana na kifungu, pengo kubwa la kiuchumi limesababishwa na
A. watoto kutopata kisomo kwa sababu ya umaskini
B. uadui na ujambazi ulioikumba jamii maskini

C. watoto kutopelekwa shule za ufundi kwa sababu ya umaskini
D. wazazi kushindwa kupambana na umaskini.

35. Ni kweli kuwa watu wote wakipewa nafasi sawa
A. watoto wa maskini watakuwa werevu

B. watoto maskini na tajiri watakuwa sawa

C. watoto wote wapendao kusoma watakuwa matajiri
D. watoto wote wapendao kusoma watapata kisomo.

 

 

 

 

36. Vijana wote wakipata mtaji:

A. wataanzisha miradi ya kiufundi

B. wataweza hata kuwa wataalamu

C. wataanzisha shughuli za kujikimu

D. watakitilia kisomo chao makini.

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 273

37. Kisomo hakifai kutiliwa nanga kwa sababu

A. watu watakuwa wataalamu

B. kina manufaa mengi

C. shule zitapanuka

D. serikali itakigharamia.

38. Maana ya kusajiliwa ni:

A. kurekebishwa

B. kunufaishwa

C. kuandikishwa

D. kufundishwa.

39. Watakinaisha kiu yao ina maana ya:

A. watapunguza tamaa yao

B. wataacha hofu yao.

C. watafurahia hali yao.

D. watatosheleza hamu yao.

40. Kichwa kinachofaa zaidi kwa taarifa hii ni:

A. Ukarimu wa serikali.

B. Kupunguza ujinga.

C. Masomo ya kiufundi.

D. Serikali kupanua masomo.

K.C.P.E REVISION 274

Soma taarifa hii kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50.

Wanafunzi wa shule ya Mtepetevu walitembelewa na wazazi. Kabla ya kuruhusiwa kukutana na watoto wao, wazazi waliingia kwenye mkutano. Takriban kila mzazi alimbebea mwanawe furushi la chakula, licha ya kuwa watoto wao walikuwa wamerudi kutoka nyumbani majuma mawili tu yaliyopita.

Mkutanoni wazazi walizozana kuhusu maakuli shuleni, mavazi na mitindo ya nywele ya watoto hao. Baadhi walitaka watoto wao wapewe mapochopocho na matunda ghalighali. Wengine wao siku hiyo hawakufikiria sana kuhusu juhudi za watoto masomoni, kinyume na kawaida yao. Hata hivyo, wengi wao waliona mbele, wakapinga udekezaji huo.

Mzozo ulipokuwa ukipamba moto, kijana mmoja wa karibu miaka ishirini na minne, aliyekuwa amevalia kilalahoi, akaingia mkutanoni. Baadhi ya wazazi waliomuona walishindwa kwani mkutano
ulikuwa ni wa wazazi. Kijana akaketi na kutega sikio. Mzazi mmoja alisimama na kusema, “Nimeitazama orodha hii ya vyakula na nimesikitika. Kwa nini hawa watoto hawapewi chapati kwa kima, pilau na
“matoke”? Tunalipa! Sasa kwa nini wanakula ugali na “githeri”.

Kijana yule alikereketwa, akaunyoosha mkono juu sana na alipoona anapuuzwa, akasimama na kuanza kusema,
“Hoja mnazotoa si ” Baadhi ya wazazi wakamdakia na kusema, “We! Nyamaza. U mtoto! U mkwe
wetu “. Kijana akazidi kukakawana na kutaka kupewa nafasi lakini wale waliokuwa karibu naye
wakamlazimisha kuketi. Mwenyekiti

akasema, “Huu ni mkutano wa wazazi. Jukumu lako kijana ni kunyamaza na kusikiliza kwa makini, kisha uwapelekee
wazazi ujumbe.”

Kijana alikazana, “Tafadhali nipeni ruhusa. Kitanda msichokilalia, hamuwajui kunguni wake.” Akaulizwa walikokuwa wazazi wake kwani ndio waliotakiwa mkutanoni. Akajibu, “Bwana Mwenyekiti, sina wazazi! Mimi ni mlezi wa wadogo zangu, nina mdogo wangu hapa. Nimetoka mbali huko kote kuja kuwawakilisha,marehemu wazazi wangu. Mimi si mlevi, si mhuni au mkwe wenu. Nina akili razini. Kuwa kijana si dhambi. Nimemaliza chuo kikuu. Nina kazi lakini mshahara wote unaishia kwenye malezi na sasa mnanikataza kusema lolote. Je, kijana hana haki? Ninajua kuwa maji mengi hayazuiliki lakini tushirikianeni kwani penye wengi hapaharibiki neno”.
K.C.P.E REVISION 275

Mwenyekiti akampa nafasi ya kujieleza. Kijana akaendelea, “Mimi kama kijana mlezi,
nimewasikiliza kwa makini. Ninapinga hoja ya mavazi ya nyumbani na mapochopocho kama chapati….

C. umri wake

41. Ni jambo gani linaloonyesha kuwa hawa watoto wanadekezwa?
A. Ingawa walikuwa hawajakaa sana shuleni, wazazi waliwabebea mafurushi ya vyakula.
B. Walikuwa wametoka nyumbani na mafurushi ya vyakula.
C. Wazazi walikuwa wanataka watoto wale mapochopocho, sio tu kuvaa kifahari.
D. Wazazi walikuja mpaka shuleni kuwaona watoto hao na vyakula.

42. Ukipamba moto maana yake ni:

A. ukiwa na joto jingi

B. ukizidi kuendelea

C. ukiharibika

D. ukihimizwa

43. Mkutanoni kulikuwa na:

A. wapinzani, mwenyekiti na kijana

B. waungaji mkono, kijana na mwenyekiti

C. Wageni, kijana na mwenyekiti

D. wadekezaji, waona mbele na mwenyekiti

44. Kijana alipuuzwa kwa sababu ya

D. kutaka kuongea.

45. Kwa nini kijana alikazana kunyoosha mkono?

A. Alitaka kuondoa shaka ya wazazi na kutoa hoja zake.
B. Alitaka kusema kuwa yeye ni mlezi si mkwe.

C. Alikasirika na kutaka kupingana na wazazi.

D. Alikasirika kwa kudharauliwa akataka ajitambulishe.

46. Hoja za kijana zilionyesha

A. ukaidi wake

B. ulala hoi wake

C. ukomavu wake

D. ujana wake

hamuwajui kunguni wake ina maana

A. wazazi hawajajua matatizo ya watoto

B. wazazi hawakujua hali ya kijana

C. wazazi hawakuamini hoja za kijana

D. wazazi hawakuamini maoni ya watoto.

48. Kulingana na taarifa hii wazazi walipaswa

A. kujadili jinsi watoto wao walivyokula, walivyovaa na kuwa na mandari shuleni
B. kuzungumzia nidhamu na jinsi ya kuwahimiza walimu kuwapa watoto chakula cha kifahari
C. wakomeshe udekezaji, wahimize nidhamu na kuacha kutaka kugeuza shule kuwa ni mandari
D. kuondoa udekezaji na raha zote zilizokuwapo shuleni kama mavazi ya kifahari na lishe bora.

49. Mpangilio bora wa matukio ya siku hiyo huko Mtepetevu ulikuwa

A. kuwasili, kuingia mkutanoni, kuzozana, kuelewana na kuomba msamaha
B. kuwasili, kuzozana, kuomba msamaha, kuingia mkutanoni na kuelewana
C. kuwasili, kuingia mkutanoni, kuelewana,

kuzozana na kuomba msamaha

D. kuwasili, kuzozana, kuingia mkutanoni, kuomba msamaha na kuelewana.

50. Kichwa mwafaka kinachofaa kuelezea taarifa hii ni:
A. Dhifa ya wazazi shuleni.

B. Ujana shuleni si hoja.

C. Mzozo na mapatano shuleni.

D. Kudunishwa kwa vijana shuleni.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2009

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

 

Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

 

 

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako Kamilin ya mitihani, Jina la shule yako.

2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi iliyoachwa.

KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2009

KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA KWANZA: LUGHA

Maswali 1 mpaka 15

Sonma vifungu vifuatuvyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo.
Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Kipepesi ni njia mojawapo 1 sana siku hizi 2 mawasiliano. Njia 3 hutumika zaidi ofisini. 4 ni kali ya matokeo ya maendeleo ya kiteknolojia 5 dunia kuwa duara ndogo 6 walimwengu huweza 7 kwa njia rahisi.

 

 

 

1. A. zilizotumika B. zinazotumika C. inayotumika D. iliyotumika
2. A. katika B. kuhusu C . ndani ya D. mbali na
3. A. hiyo B. hizi C. hizo D. hii
4. A. Ama B. Aidha C. Na D. Au

5. A. iliyoiwezesha B.yaliyoliwezesha C. iliyoliwezesha D. yaliyojwezesha

6. A. ambayo B. ambao C. ambapo D. ambalo

K.7C..P.E REAV.ISION kuwasiliana B. kuwasilisha C2. 79

kuwasilishwa D. kuwasilishiana

Kutoja swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.

16. “Ka” imetumiwaje kalika sentensi:

Mvulana aliwasili nyumbani, akavua nguo, akafululiza jikoni, akala?

A. kuonyesha hali ya kuendelea kwa matukio.

B. kuunyesha hali ya kufuatana kwa matukio.

C. kuonyesha hali ya masharti.

D. kuonyesha hali ya wakati uliopita.

 

17. kanusha sentesi hii:

Mahali kuliko na gharika kwahitaji msaada.

A. Mahali kuliko na kiangazi hakuhitaji msaada.

B. Mahali kuliko na kiangazi kwahitaji msaada.

C. Mahali kusiko na gharika kwahitaji msaada.

D. Mahali kusiko na gharika hakuhitaji msaada.

 

18. Chagua jawabu lisilo sahihi.

A. Paa ni mnyama.

B. Paa ni kwenda juu.

C. Paa ni sehemu ya mbele ya uso.

D. Paa ni sehemu ya juu ya nyumba.

 

19. Geuza katika usemi wa taarifa:

Mwalimu aliwaambia wanafunzi, “Tutakamilisha shughuli ya kudurusu kwa kufanya mtihani muhula huu.”

A. Mwalimu aliwaarifu wanafunzi kuwa

wangekamilisha shughuli ya kudurusu kwa kufanya mithani muhula huu.
B. Mwalimu aliwaarifu wanafunzi kuwa wangekamillisha shughuli ya kudurusu kwa kufanya mitihani muhula huu.

C. Mwalimu aliwaarifu wanafunzi kuwa watakamilisha shughuli ya kudurusu kwa kufanya mitihani muhula huu.

D. Mwaliinu aliwaaritu wanafunzi kuwa watakamilisha shughuli ya kudurusu kwa kufanya mtihani muhula huo.

20. “Wa” umetumikaje katika sentensi:

Uzi mweupe wa kushonea umenunuliwa?

 

A. kuonyesha kumiliki.

B. Kuowesha matumizi.

C. Kuonyesha kitenzi.

D. kuonyesha hali.

 

21. Panga vifungu vifuatavyo kuunda sentensi sahihi.

(i) huyafukua

(ii) kila tukipanda

(iii) mahindi

(iv) na kuyala

(v) kuchakulo

 

A. (ii), (iii), (v), (i), (iv)

B. (i), (iv), (iii), (v), (ii)

C. (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (i)

D. (i), (v), (ii), (iii), (iv)

25. Chagua kiwakilishi katika sentensi. Huyu anaupinga vikali ufisadi.
A. ufisadi

B. vikali

C. anaupinga

D. huyu.

 

22. Nomino kutokana na kitenzi ‘nyamaa’ ni:

A. nyamazia

B. Kunyamavu

C. Nyamaza

D. Unyamavu

 

23. Zabuni ni:

A. kuuza kwa kuongezea bei

B. kuuza kwa kushindania bei

C. kuuza kwa rejareja

D. kuuza kwa kukopesha

 

24. Ni methali ipi iliyo na maana tofauti

maelezo haya? Ukisoma ukurasa mmoja mmoja utakamilisha kitabu chote

A. Bandu handu huisha gogo.

B. Chovya chovya humaliza buyu la asali.

C. Tone na tone habari hujaa.

D. Chururu si ndo ndo ndo.

26. Mazingira, machozi na mate ni nomino katika ngeli ya

A. YA-YA

B. I-ZI

C. Ll-YA

D. U-YA

 

27. Chagua kiambishi kifaacho kuchazia pengo: Farasi hata shinda nyumbu
A. i

B. li

C. m

D. zi

 

28. Chagua neno Ienye maana sawa na minghairi ya:

A. mradi

B. pasipo

C. isipokuwa

D. bali.

29. Jibu la kitendawili:

Afahamu kuchora lakini hajui achoracho ni:

A. mjusi

B. kobe

C. Konokono

D. nyoka.

 

30. Chagua sentensi ambayo imetumia kihisishi kifaacho.

A. Simile! Mpishe mwenye mzigo.

B. Pole jamani! Mmepata afueni nyote.

C. Alhamdulilahi! Mali yote imeporwa

D. Pakachaka! Amependekeza suluhisho nzuri.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31– 40

Jamii thabiti huhitaji misingi madhubuti ya makuzi ya watoto. Hoja ya wazazi isiwe tu kujitafutia mali kiholela bali iwe ni kuwatambua warithi wa mali inayotafutwa. Hii ndiyo maana wazazi wengi leo hujikusuru kuisimamisha misingi ya malezi bora ya watoto kwa kuwasomesha.

Kumsomesha mototo tu bila msingi wa nidhamu ni kama kulijenga jumba la ghorofa bila msingi imara na kuporomoka kwake ni ajabu.Vijana wanapaswa kuelewa umuhimu huu ili wawe tayari kuupokea uongozi urathi wa jamii.

Msingi madhubuti ya kinidhamu hujengwa tangu watoto wakianza kutambua mambo. Kungoja mpaka mtoto awe mkubwa ndipo aanze kufunza maadili ni kama kujaribu kumkunja samaki akiwa tayari amekomaa na kuwa mkavu; udongo tuuwahi uli maji.

Hapo kale mambo yalikuwa tofauti mtoto aliweza kosolewa na mtu yeyote yule hata kama alikuwa ni mpita njia. Watoto walikuwa ni wa jamii, hulka zao zilionekana mapema kama vile nyota njema zionekanavyo alfajiri. Watoto walikuwa wakitenda mambo huku waijihisi kuwa wanakondolewa macho na jamii. Hisia hizo ziliwafanya watoto kujichunguza, kujiasa, na kutenda kila jambo kwa tahathari.
Watoto waliheshimu watu wazima bila kushuruishwa, hali ambayo ilijenga uhusiano mzuri katika jamii.

Mtoto afunzwe adabu ipasavyo kawaida hawezi kutetereka popote alipo, iwe shuleni au nyumbani. Mtoto kama huyo kufanya zumbukuku na watovu wa nidhamu sio rahisi, bali hataweza kuchukua nafasi ya walimu na wazazi kuyapitisha maadili mwafaka kwa wenzake. Mtoto huyo hukuza mbegu bora katika jamii. Yeye hujistahi, huwa na bidii na uvumilivu mwingi. Wazazi wakilea watoto wa aina hii na wawaongezee mafunzo ya kidini, jamii itakuwa na uhakika wa kuwa na warithi bora. Watoto hao wataweza kuchangia katika pakubwa katika maendeloe ya nchi kwa jumla.

Ipo haja kubwa sasa ya kuacha kung’ang’ania kasumba na tamaduni za kigeni katika malezi. Tuache ubaguzi, uvivu na ubinafsi ili kuwapa watoto mfano bora na miangaza ya kuwakuza kifikira, kielimu, kiuchumi na kitamaduni. Jamii isipuuze kutoa mchango yakc katika urekebishaji wa watoto. Mathalani, ni makosa mtu kuacha kumkosoa mtoto atendaye mambo ya kuyahatarisha maisha yake na ya wenzake.

 

Watoto hata nao wana jukumu katika kuyaimarisha maisha yao. Wanapaswa kuziepuka tabia
K.Cm.Pb.EaRyaEVhISaItOaNikiwa wapewi misingi makwao. Wanawe2z8a3kuziiga jamii nyofu kinidhamu hata ikiwa sio wazazi wao na kuyatupilia mbali mambo maovu ambayo yanawazunguka katika jamii. Ni vizuri wajue

31. Kulingana na kifungu, misingi bora ya watoto hukuzwa kwa:

A. wazazi kutafuta mali na kuwasomesha warithi
B. kuujua umuhimu wao na kuwapa maelekezi

C. kuwa na misingi madhubuti shuleni

D. kufunza watoto kujikusuru kiuchumi.

32. Maana ya “kuporomoka kwake si ajabu” ni:

A. haishangazi ikiwa ghorofa itaanguka

B. malezi ya watoto kuharibika si kazi

C. wazazi kushindwa malezi si ajabu

D. ni rahisi jamii kupoteza warithi.

33. Amekomaa na kuwa mkavu: huweza kulinganishwa na:
A. ugumu wa malezi bora

B. madhara ya ucheleweshaji wa kufunza nidhamu
C. adhara ya ucheleweshaji wa masomo ya watoto
D. ugumu wa kuwakosoa watoto.

34. Watoto wa zamani:

A. walilelewa kwa ugumu

B. waliwaogopa wazazi waliowalea

C. walikomaa kwa haraka

D. walilelewa kwa ushirikiano.

35. Watoto kuhisi kuwa wanatazamwa na jamii kuliwafanya waweze:
A. kuithamini jamii zaidi

B. kuiogopa jamii majumbani

C. kuwajibika katika jamii

D. kurekebisha tabia katika jamii.

36. Kulingana na kifungu. ubaguzi katika malezi hutokea:
A. wazazi wanapopuuza kurekebisha makosa ya watoto wengine
B. wazazi wanapoanza kuwasomesha watoto wao tu
C. jamii inapoanza kuwakodolea watoto macho bila kuwasaidia
D. vijana wanapopuuza ushauri wa wanajamii wengine.

37. Watoto hata nao wana jukumu katika kuyaimarisha maisha yao. Methali inayoweza kutumiwa kujumuisha maneno haya ni:

A. mtoto umleavyo ndivyo akuavyo

B. ukishikwa shikamana

C. ukibebwa usilevyelevye miguu

D. mlolo akibebwa hutazama kisogo cha nina.

 

38. Warithi bora katika jamii hukuzwa kwa:

A. malezi bora na e1imu

B. kuheshimiwa na wakubwa

C. malezi ya kizamani

D. kuamimwa na jamii.

 

39. Maana ya “hawezi kutetereka” ni:

C. Hujiamini

D. Hujiheshimu.

A. hawezi kubabaika

B. hawezi kupotoka

C. hawezi kushawishika

D. hawezi kutetemeka

40. Chagua neno lenye maana sawa na hujistahi kama lilivyotumiwa katika kifungu.
A. Hujisifu

B. Hujipenda

Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50.

Asubuhi hiyo Tundu aliamka akiwa mehovu wa mwili na roho. Ulikuwa mwanzo wa siku ambayo kwake Tundu ilifanana na zingine za awali kama shilingi kwa ya pili. Katu haingempa matumaini mapya. Usiku uliopita ulizongwa na hamaniko na mavune makubwa kutokana na shughuli za kutwa shuleni.
Kutwa hii alikuwa amepewa adhabu ya kupalilia shamba la shule baada ya kukosa kufanya zoezi la hesabu. Ingawa kufanya adhabu kulikuwa mazoea yake Tundu, hii ya leo ilikuwa ya kipekee kwani hata baada va kuikamilisha, mwalimu mkuu alimpa nyongeza; alihitajika kuyafanya mazoezi mengine mawili zaidi na kumkabidhi mwalimu kesho yake asubuhi.

Tundu alijikokota kutoka kitandani kwa maumivu. Alijua kwamba hakuwa ameikamilisha kazi aliyopewa na mwalimu mkuu. Fikira ya kumkabili mwalimu mkuu ilimtia fadhaa ya ajabu, ila alifahamu sababu ya fadhaa yake. Vituko vyake vilikuwa vimewakaba walimu koo. Alikuwa hahudhurii madarasa yake kwa desturi. Mara nyingi alitoka nyumbani alfajiri na mapema. Hata hivyo hakudiriki kufika shuleni; japo kwa kweli alikuwa akivaa sare za shule kuwasadikisha wazazi kuwa anaenda shuleni. Wazazi wake walipojuzwa na walimu kuhusu tabia hii, walipigwa na butwaa wasijue la kusema. Waliwaambia walimu kwamba kila siku Tundu alikuwa akiondoka akiwa amevaa sare kamili ya shule, na aliporejea nyumbani magharibi alifululiza chumbani kudurusu kazi yake. Laiti wangalijua kwamba Tundu alikuwa akivaa
magwanda yake ya ‘kazi’ ndani ya sare za shule na pindi tu apoteapo kwenye upeo wa macho ya wazazi, alikuwa akijitoma kwenye mashamba ya majirani kujichumia!

Baada ya kupata staftahi yake ambayo kwa kweli ilikuwa chai ya mkandaa, alivaa mavazi yake ya kawaida na kujiambia kwamba leo atamngojea mwenzakc njiani waucheze ‘mchezo’ wake wa kawaida. Alipofika kwenye njia panda alivua sare yake ya shule na kubaki na vazi la ‘kazi’. Mwanafunzi mwenzake kwa jina Karaha alijiunga naye na baada ya Tundu kumwelezea kuwa alichelea kuongezewa adhabu na mwalimu mkuu, walikata shauri kulitembelea shamba la mwalimu mkuu ambalo lilikuwa mkabala na shule yao.

Shamba hili lilikuwa limeshiba miti iliyozaa matunda ya kila aina. Tundu, mate yalimdondoka alipokuwa akiyatundulia macho matunda haya. Umaskini wa familia yake ulisahaulika machoni pa utajiri huu asioulalia wala kuuamkia. Walinyata kimya kimya katikati ya miti hii, manyezi yakimkumbatia Tundu kwa nguvu. Hii haikuwa mara yake ya kwanza kufaidi jasho la wengine, hivyo hakusita kujiuliza sababu ya uoga huo. Jambo ambalo Tundu hakutambua ni kwamba siku yake ya arubaini ilikuwa inabisha hodi.

Haukupita muda mrefu baada ya kuanza kuyatunda matunda kabla ya kusikia mrindimo wa nyayo.
KK.aCr.Pa.hEaR, EaVmISbIOayNe hakuwa mzoefu wa vitimbi vya Tundu2, 8a6litoa macho pima kwa uoga. Tundu aliendelea kufurahia kiamsha kinywa chake hadi pale alipotahamaki kuguswa begani. Alipogeuka alijikuta

41. Siku hii ilifanana na zingine za awali kwa sahabu:

A. Tundu aliamka akiwa mchovu

B. usiku uliotangulia ulikima na mambo mengi

C. usiku uliotangulia hakuepuka adhabu

D. Tundu hakutarajia kupata lolote jema.

B. alikuwa mtovu wa nidhamu

C. aliogopa kuongezewa kazi na mwalimu mkuu

D. hakuwa mwenye adabu hivyo aliogopa kuadhibiwa na mwalimu mkuu.

45. “…alivaa mavazi yake ya kawaida” ina maana

A. alivaa nguo na magwanda yake ndani

42. Maana ya neno ‘ulizongwa’ ni A ulijawa
B. uliingiwa

C. ulishikwa

D. ulivamiwa.

43. Kulingana na kifungu:

A. aliyekosa kufanya mazoezi kila mara alipata adhabu mbili
B. kuilikuwa na wanafunzi wachache mno wenye tabia kama ya Tundu
C. Tundu hakupenda kufanva kazi yake shuleni

D. adhabu aliyopewa Tundu siku hii alikuwa ameizoea.

44. Tundu alichelea kutoka kitandani kwa sababu

A. hakuwa amekamilisha kazi hivyo alimwogopa mwalimu mkuu

B. alivaa nguo na magwanda ya kawaida

C. alivaa sare na magwanda yake ndani

D. alivaa sare na nguo za nyumbani.

46. Maana y a “waucheze ‘mchezo’ wake wa kawaida” ni:
A. wavae magwanda yao ya kawaida

B. waibe katika mashamba ya majirani

C. Watoroke tena kutoka shuleni

D. Walivamie shamba la mwalimu mkuu.

 

 

 

 

 

 

47. Siku hii Tundu hakwenda shuleni kwa sababu

K.C.P.E REVISION 287

A. hakutaka kupewa adhabu nyingine na mkuu wa shule
B. hakutaka kupigiwa kelele na mwalimu

C. alitaka kulipiza kisasi kwa mkuu wa shule

D. mkuu wa shule alikuwa ameyaingilia mambo yake.

48. “Siku yakc ya arubaini ilikuwa inabisha hodi” ina maana:
A. uvivu wake ulikuwa karibu kugunduliwa

B. mkuu wa shule alikuwa karibu

C. mkuu wa shule alikuwa karibu kumpa onyo la mwisho
D. uovu wake ulikuwa karibu kugunduliwa

49. Matendo yanayoonycsha kuwajibika kwa mwalimu ni

A. kumrudisha Tundu shuleni, kumgusa begani, kumpa mashauri
B. Kumtimizia Tundu mahiiaji, kumwadhibu, kumfumania
C. kutoa adhabu, kutoa ushauri, kumrudisha Tundu shuleni
D. kumsikitikia Tundu, kumrekebisha tabia, kumwonya.

50. Kulingana na kifungu

A. Karaha ana mazoea ya wizi

B. Karaha hana msimamo

C . Karaha aliadhibiwa na mwalimu

D. Karaha alirekebisha tabia.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

 

KCPE 2010
KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA

Muda: Dakika 40

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba Yako kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la Shule yako.

Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa.

 

 

 

 

Insha

Andika insha isiyopungua ukurasa mmoja na nusu juu ya kichwa kifuatacho:

 

Umeshinda shilingi milioni moja katika mchezo wa bahati nasibu. Eleza utakavyozitumia pesa hizo.

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

 

 

Nilikimbia kadiri 1 nikiacha 2 ya jasho kudondoka kipajini. Sikujua kilichonipeleka
3 humo. Daima babu yangu alikuwa 4 dhidi ya kucheza karibu na mabaki ya nyumba

zili1zo. bAo. mnionkgae.weza

B. nilivyoweza

C. niliweza

D. niliyoweza

5 niliyapuuza maneno yake. Sasa 6 na hatari ya kuwa kitoweo 7
mnyama 8 .

2. A. matone

3. A. kambini

4. A. amenishauri

B. michirizi

B. handakini

B. ameniambia

C. mitiririko

C. mashambani

C. amenikanya

D. mafunda

D. magofuni

D. ameniarifu

D. Ijapokuwa

 

 

 

9. A. kuwanyima

10. A. nyingi

11. A. kuliko

12. A. lilipaswa

B. kuwapendelea

B. wengi

B. kama

B. litapaswa

C. kuwanyakua

C. wowote

C. kwa

C. linapaswa

D. kuwabagua

D. zozote

D. badala

D. limepaswa

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chagua jibu lililo sahihi.
16. Chagua sentensi sahihi kisarufi.
A. Msichana amenunua rinda nyingine nyeusi.
B. Msichana amenunua rinda nyingine jeusi.

C. Msichana amenunua rinda ingine nyeusi

D. Msichana amenunua rinda lingine jeusi

17. Chagua wingi wa sentensi hii: Ua ulizungushiwa waya.
A. Maua yalizungushiwa waya.

B. Maua yalizungushiwa nyaya.
C. Nyua zilizungushiwa waya.
D. Nyua zilizungushiwa nyaya.

18. Chagua kundi lenye vielezi pekee.

A. Jabali, shujaa, mkakamavu, msomi.

B. Mweupe, mdogo, mrembo, mnene.

C. Ovyo, ghafla, kisiri, kwa gari.

D. Omba, inua, osha, funga.

19. Nomino dhahania kutokana na kivumishi ‘bora’ ni:
A. boreka

B. uboreshaji

C. kuboreka

D. boresha.

20. Chagua kiwakilishi katika sentensi hii: Wao hucheka hadi wakalia.
A. wao

B. wakalia

C. hucheka

D. hadi.

21. Buibui ni kwa utando, ni kwa mchwa.

A. kichuguu

B. kizimba

C. tundu

D. mchangani.

22. Jua kuwa mtikati ni wakati wa:

A. mchana

B. macheo

C. alasiri

D. adhuhuri.

23. Kamilisha: Matunda yamejaa sokoni

A. chepechepe

B. pomoni

C. nomi

D. tiki.

24. Chagua neno lisiloafikiana na mengine.

B. mende

C. utitiri

D. kunguni.

25. Meno hushikiliwa na nyama zinazoitwa:

A. taya

B. shavu

C. kaakaa

D. ufizi.

26. Mtoto wa umbu huitwa:

A. mpwa

B. mkoi

C. ndugu

D. binamu.

27. Chagua kihusishi katika sentensi hii.

Najua tofauti baina ya mandari na mandhari.

A. najua

B. na mandhari

C. tofauti

D. baina ya

28. Geuza katika kauli ya taarifa: Baba aliwaambia wanawe, “Viwekeni vyumba vyenu safi kila siku.”

A. Baba aliwaambia wanawe kuwa anataka waviweke vyumba vyao safi kila siku.
B. Baba aliwaambia wanawe kuwa angetaka waviweke vyumba vyao safi siku zote.
C. Baba aliwaamuru wanawe kuviweka vyumba vyao safi kila siku.
D. Baba aliwaambia wanawe kuwa yeye hutaka waviweke vyumba vyao safi kila siku.

29. Chagua sentensi iliyo katika wakati uliopo hali isiyodhihirika.
A. Mimi hupika chakula.

B. Mimi nimepika chakula.

C. Mimi ninapika chakula.

D. Mimi napika chakula.

30. Chagua sentensi iliyoakifishwa vyema.

A. Ah! Umeanguka? Pole sana.

B. Ah, Umeanguka, pole sana!

C. Ah, Umeanguka? pole sana

D. Ah! Umeanguka Pole sana.

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31 — 40.

“Mgeni mheshimiwa, Daktari Busara, Mwalimu wetu Mkuu, walimu, wanafunzi wezangu, h a m j a m b o ! Kama mlivyotajiwa, mimi ni Kiranja Mkuu wa shule hii. Kwa niaba ya wanafunzi wa darasa la nane ningependa kuchukua fursa hii kuwashukuru walimu wetu kwa kutuletea mhadhiri ambaye ametupa mawaidha ya kutufaa. Bila shaka tukiyatilia maanani yote aliyoyanena yatatujenga maishani.

Mhadhiri ametukumbusha kuhusu umuhimu wa nidhamu. Ametilia mkazo matendo ya heshima na
u t i i f u . Ametuhimiza kuyachuja mema na mabaya na kuzifuata kanuni zote muhimu. maishani. Aidha
ametuhimza tutende mambo kwa wakati ufaao. Amesisitiza pia kuwa, tukifanya lolote tulitende kwa hadhari, mahali, pafaapo. Yatupasa tuepuke njia zitakazotutumbukiza gizani.

Daktari Busara ametuzungumzia kuhusu mwingiliano mbaya kati ya marafiki shuleni na hata nyumbani. Ni muhimu kuyaepuka makundi yanayoshinikiza utendaji maovu. Tuhimizane kusoma katika m ak undi na kubadilishana mawazo bora. Amesema kuwa michezo ni muhimu kwani ina faida nyingi. Miongoni mwa faida hizo ni kuijenga miili na kuchangamsha akili. Hata hivyo, amesisitiza tena kuwa, k i la jambo l i n a
kipimo. Kucheza sana bila kusoma, kutayaathiri matokeo ya mitihani.

Bwana Busara amesema kuwa, maisha ya kesho hujengwa na maisha ya leo. Ni vyema k u j i ul i za, “kweli nimejenga nini leo? Je, nimekuwa nikijipakatia mikono siku hizo zote, nikijua kuwa muda upo na hapana haja ya kujisaga sana na vitabu?” Jamani wenzangu, tuamke sote kwa pamoja kama tulivyoshauriwa, Tusome kwa bidii kama mchwa wafanyavyo kazi zao. Tusitegemee kubebwa na wazazi, ndugu na marafiki. Tukumbuke kuwa, mtegemea cha nduguye …”

Nimefurahi mhadhiri aliposema kuwa, miaka kadhaa ijayo huenda tukajikuta kuwa viongozi. Viongozi wa kesho hujengwa leo. Nikajiuliza tena, “mimi nitaweza hata kuwa mhadhiri kama yeye?” Alipoendelea kusema kuwa maisha ya uzeeni huanzia utotoni, nilijua kuwa, huo ndio uhalisia wa mambo. J i ns i tunavyosoma sasa ndivyo tutakavyojiokoa kesho. Tukiuendekeza ugoigoi hatutafua dafu abadan! T uk um b uk e tuki lima pantosha, tutavuna pankwisha. Tuamke! Tuamke kwa nia moja ya kujiimarisha maishani.

Mhadhiri ametuhimiza tuwe na malengo. Tujue tunataka nini maishani. Tuibuni mikakati
ya k u k i p a t a k i le tukitakacho. Ametuambia pia kuwa, mumu humu darasani, mtatoka madaktari, walimu, wahandisi na hata matopasi! Sasa uteuzi ni wetu. Utahisije kujikuta duni kazini, ukiwa na mwenzako
mliyesoma pamoja katika mazingira sawa, sasa ndiye mkurugenzi wako? Tusome sote tuimarike, tupite kwenda shule bora za sekondari na huko uzi uwe ule ule kama tulivyoshauriwa. Tukaze kamba hadi chuo kikuu, tutakapokutana na Daktari Busara. Inawezekana! Muda ni huu! Tutie bidii.

Mimi nimepata mwamko. Kuanzia leo sitafikiria kuwa mchuuzi kama wazazi wangu. La! hasha! Ingawa kazi ni kazi na uchuuzi huo umenipa riziki tangu utotoni, sasa nataka nisome sana hatimaye niwe mhandisi kuunda hata ndege.

Jamani, furaha iliyoje hiyo kama sote tutajikuta katika baadhi ya nyadhifa na kazi bora z i l i z o ta j w a? Tutafanyaje tupige hatua hizo? Tujifunge vibwebwe kwani mchumia juani hulia kivulini.

Namalizia kwa kuwashukuru tena kwa kunisikiliza na kuzidi kumshukuru mhadhiri wetu wa leo na walimu. Nanyi wenzangu, tumepewa motisha leo. Natumai tumeamka kutoka katika usingizi wetu wa pono. Tuahidi kukazana kama nyuki. Asanteni.”0504

C. maisha ya leo ni sawa na maisha ya kesho

31. Kwa mujibu wa aya ya pili nidhamu huhusu mambo yafuatayo Ila:
A. kuogopa mabaya yanapotujia

B. kutenda mambo mema kwa tahadhari

C. kutenda mambo yanayokubalika

D. kuwa mahali pafaapo ikihitajika.

32. Maana ya “zitakazotutumbukiza gizani” ni:

A. zitakazotuathiri

B. zitakazotupotosha

C. zitakazotukosesha hadhari

D. zitakazotukosesha mwanga.

33. Kulingana na kifungu, umuhimu wa michezo ni:

A. kuhimiza mwingiliano wa makundi

B. kuhimiza kufanya mambo kwa kipimo

C. kutuliza akili na kuimarisha miili

D. huleta tahadhari na kuimarisha matokeo.

34. Maisha ya kesho hujengwa na maisha ya leo inamaanisha
A. ukitaka kuishi vyema baadaye sharti uweke msingi sasa
B. maisha mema ya baadaye sharti yawekewe

D. ukitaka kuishi kesho lazima uishi vizuri leo.

35. Maana ya nikijipakatia mikono ni

A. kutofanya chochote

B. kutotazamia chochote

C. kubaki ukishangaa

D. kukaa ukihuzunika.

36. Kwa mujibu wa kifungu Tukilima pantosha tutavuna pankwisha ina maana
A tukilima shamba dogo hatutapata mavuno mengi
B. tukiridhika na kidogo hatutatamani vingi

C. tukitosheka na shamba dogo hatutatafuta kubwa
D. tukitia bidii kidogo tutapata mafanikio haba.

C. awali kiranja hakuwa na malengo

37. Kulingana na kifungu hiki, lengo kuu la kupata elimu ni:
A. kujipatia sifa kubwa

B. kujiimarisha na kuimarisha jamii

C. kuweza kujiteulia mambo maishani

D. kupata vyeo vikubwa na utajiri.

38. Katika aya ya sita maoni ya mhadhiri ni kwamba
A. kusomea katika mazingira sawa huwahakikishia wanafunzi nafasi sawa baadaye
B. wanafunzi waliosomea katika mazingira sawa wana hakikisho la kuwa na mitazamo sawa
C. wanafunzi waliosomea katika mazingira sawa wanatakiwa wajitofautishe kitaaluma
D. kusomea katika mazingira sawa huweza kujenga watu wa taaluma tofauti.

39. Mimi nimepata mwamko ina maana

makubwa maishani

D. awali kiranja alikuwa hajui kazi nyingine.

40. Kwa mujibu wa kifungu, kupata baadhi ya nyadhifa na kazi bora kunahitaji
A. kuwa na tumaini na motisha

B. kujitahidi kwa vyovyote vile

C. kuamka kutoka usingizini

D. kufanya kazi tangu utotoni.

A. awali kiranja alikuwa hajui umuhimu wa elimu
B. awali kiranja hakuwa ameyawekea maisha yake malengo

Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50

Bara_la Afrika lina takriban mataifa hamsini na manne. Kila taifa limetengwa na kubainishwa kwa mipaka yake ya kitaifa iliyopangwa kwa sababu za kisiasa zinazohusisha misingi ya utawala. Kutokana na mipaka hii, mataifa mengine ni madogo kama vile Rwanda na Burundi na mengine ni makubwa kama Tanzania, Kongo na Kameruni. Ifahamike kwamba ukubwa au udogo si hoja kwa taifa ikiwa linaweza kujisimamia. Bora tu pawe na serikali inayotekeleza majukumu yake.

Kwa ajili ya tofauti za kitaifa, yamkinika ingekuwa vigumu sana kwa utawala mmoja kuweza kumiliki na kudhibiti eneo lote la Afrika mashariki na kati. Fikiria jinsi serikaii moja inavyoweza kutawala kuanzia visiwa vya Lamu kule upwa wa pwani hadi kufikia Kameruni, upande wa Afrika Magharibi.

Kuna umuhimu wa kuweka mipaka ya kitaifa. Jambo la kwanza ni kurahisisha utawala . Kwayo serikali huweza kutekeleza miradi yake kwa urahisi katika eneo lake. Hali kadhalika, watu wanaoishi katika eneo moja hujenga uhusiano wa karibu na kufahamiana vyema. Hali hii hukuza ushirikiano zaidi. Umuhimu mwingine hujitokeza kwa upande wa kujenga hisia za umoja miongoni mwa wote wanaoishi katika eneo moja. Umoja huu huwa na mvuto wa kidugu unaotia watu ari ya kutaka kujitambulisha kama raia wa sehemu moja. Bila hisia za umoja na udugu_kwa hakika haingewezekana kuwa na taifa madhubuti.

Mbali na mipaka, kuna tamaduni na mila za kiasili zinazozibainisha jamii mbalimbali.Tukiangazia upande wa vyakula itadhihirika kuwa, vile vilivyozoeleka eneo moja ni tofauti na vyakuia vya kawaida vya eneo lingine. Kwa mfano katika mataifa ya Afrika Magharibi hasa Nigeria, chakula chao mahsusi huitwa ‘foo foo’. Nchini Kenya ugali ndicho chakula cha muhimu miongoni mwa jamii nyingi. Waganda hupendelea ‘matoke’ zaidi. Mazoea yana taabu. Mtu huenda asitosheke na mapochopocho ya biriani na pilau mfululizo bila kuonja chakula chao asilia.

Mavazi pia ni mojawapo ya vitambulisho vya tamaduni za jamii mbalimbali. Mathalan Afrika Magharibi ni maarufu sana kwa mavazi yao ya aina ya vitenge vilivyotiwa nakshi na kushonwa kwa umaridadi. Nyuzi za rangi ali ali hutumiwa kuongezea urembo wa vitenge kuthibitisha kwamba ukiviona vinaelea jua vimeundwa. Mavazi haya huvaliwa na wanaume na wanawake, tofauti zikijitokeza kwenye mitindo na mishono. La ziada, wanaume hukamilisha vazi lao kwa kuvaa kofia maalum. Wanawake nao hujifunga kitambaa kichwani kila mmoja kwa ufundi wake.

Kila taifa lina lugha yake maalum ambayo hujulikana na kutumiwa na raia wake wote kama lugha unganishi. Lugha h i i teule huitwa lugha ya taifa na inatumika katika shughuli za serikali, biashara na mawasiliano ya kila siku miongoni mwa wanajamii.

Katika mataifa ya Kenya na Tanzania, Kiswahili kimetumiwa kwa miaka mingi kama lugha ya ta i fa . Kwa upande mwingine, Luganda ndiyo lugha iliyopewa kipaumbele huko Uganda japo Kiswahili hutumiwa pia. Nchini Kongo kuna baadhi ya lugha teule za taifa zikiwemo Lingala na Kingwana.

Ni kweli kuwa nchi za kiafrika zina mengi yanayofanana kama vile kuwa na historia ya kutawaliwa na wakoloni, mali ya asili kama vile machimbo ya migodi, sherehe za kitamaduni zikiwemo ndoa na posa. Hata hivyo ibainike kuwa kila jamii ina tamaduni zake mahsusi zinazoitofautisha na nyingine. Ni muhimu kujivunia tamaduni hizo kwani mwacha mila ni mtumwa.

41. Bara la Afrika lina takriban mataifa hamsini na manne inamaanisha:
A. lina karibu mataifa hamsini na manne

B. lina zaidi ya mataifa hamsini na manne

C. lina mataifa hamsini na manne

D. lina chini ya mataifa hamsini na manne.

42. Kulingana na taarifa, ubora wa taifa hupimwa kwa:
A. utamaduni wake

B. uwezo wa kujitegemea

48. Lugha unganishi:

A. ni ile inayounganisha mataifa

B. ni ile inayofahamika na kutumiwa na wote

C. ni ile inayotumiwa katika biashara

D. ni ile inayojumuisha watu wa jamii zote.

49. Kifungu kinasema kwamba Kiswahili kimetumika kama kitambulisho:
A. Tanzania na Kenya

B. Afrika Mashariki

C. Kenya na Uganda

D. Tanzania na Uganda.

 

50. Kichwa kinachofaa zaidi taarifa hii ni:
A. mwacha mila ni mtumwa

B. tofauti kati ya Africa Mashariki na Magharibi
C. vitambulisho vya jamii

D. vitambulisho vya tamaduni.

K.C.P.E

K.N.E.C.

 

SCIENCE

2003-2010

K.C.P.E SCIENCE 2003-2010

TOPICALL ANALLYSED

 

WEATHER AND ASTRONOMY

 

Weather conditions,instrument & the solar system

jar used for measuring rainfall should be
A. narrow
B. wide
C. short
D. Long Q3, 2004
2. One evening, a pupil noticed a bright heavenly body that was

not twinkling. The heavenly body was most likely

A. Saturn

B. Uranus

C. Venus

D. Neptune. Q8, 2006

3. The reason for using a biro pen cap as a pivot in the construction of an improvised wind vane is to make the arrow
A. rotate freely

B. balance on the stand

C. tail show the direction of wind

D. head heavy. Q9, 2006

4. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the

planet Mars? It is

A. nearest to the sun

B. the brightest planet

C. nearest to the earth

D. the smallest planet. Q10, 2006
5. Planets appear bright because they

A. reflect light

B. produce light

C. all twinkle

D. are large. Q10, 2007

6. The reason why coloured water is used in the construction of a liquid thermometer is to

A. make it visible

B. make it expand faster

C. make it absorb more heat

D. increase its density Q49, 2007

7. Which one of the following is the largest planet?

A. Mercury.

B. Saturn.

C. Jupiter.

D. Earth. Q50, 2007

 

 

 

8. The presence of thick white and mountain shaped clouds are a sign of

A. heavy rain falling soon

B. low temperatures

C. fine weather

D. strong winds blowing. Q47, 2008

9. Which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about a windsock?
A windsock

A. is open at both ends

B. gets filled with air and rises

C. points to the direction from which wind blows

D. should be placed in the open field. Q40, 2008

10. Which one of the following shows the 4th and 7th planets
from the Sun?

A. Venus, Neptune.

B. Jupiter, Saturn.

C. Mars, Uranus.

D. Jupiter, Uranus.

11. The following are features of certain types of clouds:

(i) white in colour

(ii) appear like bundles of cotton

(iii) dark grey in colour

(iv) mountainous in shape.

 

Which pair of features are for nimbus clouds?

A. (i) and (ii).

B. (i) and (iv).

C. (ii) and (iii).

D. (iii) and (iv). Q33,2009

12. The diagram below represents a windsock constructed by pupils.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

A suitable material that can be used to make the part labeled Q is

A. sheet of metal

B. manilla paper

C. polythene sheet

D. Piece of mosquito net. Q29, 2009

13. The following are activities carried out when modeling the solar system, but not in their correct order.

(i) draw circles on a manila paper to show orbits.

(ii) model the planets and the sun using clay.

(iii) put name tags on models of planets the sun.

(iv) fix model of planets to orbits and the model of the sun at the sun at the centre
(v) paste manila paper on soft board.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following is the CORRECT order in which the activities are carried out?

A. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv), (v)

B. (i), (iii), (ii), (v), (iv)

C. (ii), (iv), (iii), (i), (v)

D. (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii). Q15, 2009

14. The diagram below represents a windsock that was constructed by pupils.

Which one of the following is a reason why the

instrument could not work?
A. The sock is made up of a strong polythene sheet.
B. End Q is larger than end P
C. A strong wire was used to make end P.
D. A long, strong wooden pole was used to suspend the sock.
15. The chart below represents a weather record for five days.
Which one of the following statements is
TRUE about the weather chart?

Whenever it was
A. sunny in the morning, it was windy in the afternoon
B. cloudy in the morning, it was sunny in the afternoon

C. calm in the morning, it was sunny in the afternoon
D. windy in the morning, it rained in the afternoon.
Q14, 2010

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

16. Which of the following planets are in the fifth and seventh positions from the sun respectively?

K.C.P.E REVISION 302

A. Mars and Saturn.

B. Jupiter and Uranus.

C. Jupiter and Saturn.

D. Mars and Uranus. QI7,2010

 

17. Which one of the following weather instruments DOES NOT work on the fact that matter occupies space?

A. Rain gauge

B.Air thermometer C.Windsock
D.Wind vane Q15,2003

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

HUMAN BODY
Digestive system,Reproductive system Respiratory system, Adolescence,circuratory system & excretory system

1. Sweat glands in the skin of a human body are located in the
A. epidermis

B. dermis

C. pores

D. oil glands. Q1, 2006

2. Which one of the following parts of a human body produces urine?

A. Bladder.

B. Ureter.

C. Kidney.

D. Urethra. Q2,2006

 

3. Which one of the following is NOT CORRECTLY

matched with its function?

Part Function

A. Oesophagus Passage of food.

A. stomach

B. duodenum

C. small intestines

D. large intestines. Q2,2008

5. In the human body water is absorbed in the

A. large intestines

B. small intestines

C. stomach

D. rectum. Q18, 2010

 

6. The diagram below represents the reproductive system in the female human body.

B. Stomach Mixes food with enzymes.

C. Small intestine Completes digestion of food

D. Large intestine Absorbs digested food.

Q1,2007

4.Absorption of water in the alimentary canal of human beings takes place in the
K.C.P.E REVISION

 

 

 

 

305

Fertilization takes place in the part labelled

A. K

B. L

C. M

D. N Q3,2006

7. Which one of the following is NOT A CORRECT

statement about reproduction in human beings?

A. Fertilization takes place in the uterus.

B. The zygote gets implanted in the wall of the uterus.
C. The blood of the mother and foetus do not mix.

D. Menstruation stops during pregnancy.

Q2, 2007

8. The blood vessel through which deoxygenated blood flows to the heart is the

A. aorta

B. pulmonary artery

C. vena cava

D. pulmonary vein. Q3, 2007

 

9. Which one of the following changes takes place during

adolescence in boys only?

A. Fast body growth.

B. Growth of pubic hair.

C. Chest and shoulders become broader.

D. Releasing of sex cells. Q4,2007

 

10. When breathing in, the

A. diaphragm flattens

B. lungs shrink

C. diaphragm becomes dome shaped

D. volume of the chest decreases.
Q17,2008

 

11. Which one of the following is NOT an excretory organ?
A. Skin.

B. Lung.

C. Kidney.

D. Rectum. Q8, 2008

12. Which one of the following is NOT a CORRECT
statement about a foetus?

A. Receives oxygen through placenta.

B. The blood of the mother and that of the foetus mix.

C. Receives food substances from the Mother’s blood.
D. Waste products are removed through the placenta.

Q5, 2009

13. Which one of the following components of blood is involved in clotting after an injury?
A. Plasma.

B. White blood cells.

C. Red blood cells.

D. Platelets. Q1, 2009

14. Which one of the following shows the CORRECT
order of blood flow in the heart?

A. Vena cava —> pulmonary artery—>

B. pulmonary vein —> aorta.

K.C.P.E REVISION 306

B. Pulmonary artery —-> vena cava —> pulmonary vein —>aorta.

C. Pulmonary vein —> aorta —>pulmonary artery
—> vena cava.

D. Aorta —> pulmonary vein —> vena cava —> pulmonary artery. Q2,2009

 

 

15. Which of the following organs in the human body both produce sex cells?

A. Ovary and uterus.

B. Testis and penis.

C. Ovary and testis.

D. Penis and Vagina. Q22, 2010

PLANTS

Classification of plants

1. Which one of the following is a leguminous plant?

A. Cabbage.

B. Maize.

C. Groundnut.

D. Tomato. Q11,2006

2. Which one of the following plants is green and non- flowering?
A. Mould.

B. Onion.

cash crops?

A. Maize, tea, yams.

B. Arrow roots, groundnuts, cotton.

C. Bananas, Irish potatoes, sorghum.

D. Sunflower, sisal, coffee. Q47, 2009

 

5. Fertilization in plants takes place when

A. a pollen tube enters the ovule

B. reproductive cells in pollen grain and ovule fuse

C. a pollen grain falls on the stigma and germinates
D. a pollen tube enters the ovary.
Q12,2006

 

6. Which of the following groups only consists of non- flowering plants?

A. Pine, Cedar, Cypress.

B. Sugar cane, Sisal, Onion.

C. Cedar, Moss, Kale.

D. Carrot, Cassava, Cactus. Q13,206

 

7. Which of the following groups of plants have the same type of root system?

A. Tomato, Maize, Peas.

B. Bean, Black jack, Cabbage.

C. Groundnuts, Rice, Sugar cane.

D. Millet, Cassava, Carrot. Q14,2006

8. The diagram below represents a certain weed.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The weed is

A. Pigweed

B. Mexican marigold

C. Blackjack

D. Oxalis. Q50,2006

9. Which one of the following plants is a cereal?

A. Millet.

B. Coffee.

C. Sunflower.

D. Peas. Q38,2007

10. Which one of the following consists of a pair of plants that CANNOT make their own food?
A. Fern and pine.

B. Toadstool and moss.

C. Puffballs and mould.

D. Cedar and yeast.
Q39,2007

11. Which one of the following groups consists of non-flowering plants only?
A. Moss, grass, pine,

B. Fern, algae, pine.

C. Moss, algae, cabbage.

D. Cabbage, grass, fern.
Q4,2008

 

12. The following are tuber crops EXCEPT:

A. onion

B. cassava

C. arrowroot

D. carrot.
Q21,2008

 

13. The diagram below shows parts of a flower.

Which one of the labelled parts is NOT CORRECTLY
matched with its function?

Part Function

A. W Receives pollen grains.

B. X Produces pollen grains.

C. Y Develops into a seed after fertilization.

D. Z Protects inner parts of a flower.

Q6, 2008

 

 

14. Which one of the following parts of a maize grain is

CORRECTLY matched with its function?

Part Function
A. Cotyledon Protects inner parts.
B Plumule Develops into roots.
C. Endosperm Stores food.
D. Radicle Develops into shoot. Q7,
2008

 

15. The embryo of a seed is made up of

A. plumule and testa

B. cotyledon and plumule

C. radicle and plumule

D. cotyledon and radicle. Q11, 2009

 

16. Which one of the following consists of only characteristics of insect pollinated flowers?

A. Sweet scented, large number of pollen grains.

B. Brightly coloured petals, sticky pollen grains.

C. Light pollen grains, sweet scented.

D. Brightly coloured petals, light pollen grains

Q25, 2008

 

17. The MAIN reason why black jack weed should be uprooted from a vegetable farm when they are still young is

A. because it is easy to uproot the weed

B. to avoid loss of soil nutrients

C. to reduce loss of water

D. to control the spread of the weed. Q44, 2009

18. Which one of the following is a storage pest?

A. Weaverbird.

B. White ant.

C. Cutworm.

D. Aphid. Q9, 2009

19. Which one of the following pests attack seedlings?

A. Stalk borers.

B. Aphids.

C. Cut worms.

D. Weaver birds. Q1,2010

20. Which one of the following statements about a bean seed is NOT CORRECT?

A. The radicle develops into a shoot and plumule into a root.
B. The micropyle allows air and water to enter seed.

C. The hilum is a scar where the seed was attached to
the fruit wall.

D. The radicle emerges from the seed before

the plumule during germination. Q4, 2010

21. The following are some characteristics of flowers:
(i) small in size

(ii) scented

(iii) long feathery stigma

(iv) produce fewer and large sticky pollen grains.

 

Which one of the following pairs of characteristics is for a wind pollinated flower?
A. (i) and (iv).

B. (ii) and (iv).

C. (ii) and (iii).

D. (i) and (iii). Q5,2010

 

22. Which one of the following is a CORRECT Food

chain?

A. Grass —> Rabbit —> Eagle —> leopard

B. Maize —> Grasshopper —> Lizard —> Snake

C. Grass —> Grasshopper —> Eagle —> Rabbit

D. Kales —> Aphids —> Weaverbird —> Rabbit

Q19 2009

23. Which one of the following is an adaptation of plants in wet areas?
A. Freshy leaves.

B. Fewer leaves.
C. Thick barks.
D. Broad leaves. Q8, 2010

24. The diagrams below represent a set up used by pupils to investigate conditions necessary for seed germination.

 

 

 

 

 

Germination occurred in

 

A. Q, S and T

B. P and Q

C. R and T

D. R and S. Q7 , 2010

 

25. The following are functions of stems

i) support the shoot (ii)storage of food
(iii)transport water to the leaves (iv)manufacture food for the plant

Which function is performed by all stems?

A.(i) and (iii)

B.(iii) and (iv)

C.(i) and (ii)

D.(ii) and (iv) Q45,2003

D. Cockroach. Q17, 2006

 

4.Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

 

ANIMALS

Classification of animals
1. Standard five pupils observed and grouped some small animals. Which one of the following animals were CORECTLY grouped?
A. Ant, tick, spider.

B. Beetle, moth, ant.

C. Spider, weevil, beetle.

D. Tick, moth, weevil. Q3, 2008

 

2. Which one of the following animals belongs to the same group as a weevil?
A. Crab.

B. Mite.

C. Spider.

D. Termite. Q39,
2008

 

3. Which one of the following animals has the same number of legs as the tick?

A. Weevil.

B. Crab.

C. Scorpion.

A. Kingfisher.

B. Hawk.

C. Duck.

D. Sunbird. Q18, 2006

 

5. Which one of the following is TRUE for both chickens and frogs? Both

A. have a constant body temperature

B. have scales

C. breath by lungs

D. feed on insects only. Q20, 2007

6. Birds which feed on nectar have

A. short pointed beaks

B. strong curved beaks

C. long slender pointed beaks

D. long slender curved beaks. Q22, 2007

 

7. The following arc some characteristics of certain animals:
Which one of the following pairs of animals has
ALL the characteristics listed?

A. Turtle and shark.

B. Lizard and tortoise.

C. Tilapia and frog.

D. Crocodile and platypus. Q12, 2009

 

8. Which one of the following pairs consists of only animals that have webbed feet?

A. Turkey and crocodile.

B. Kingfisher and flamingo.

C. Hippopotamus and toad.

D. Frog and duck. Q42, 2009

 

 

 

 

9. The table below shows characteristics of some invertebrates

 

Name Number of body parts Number of legs
Weevil 3 X
Y 2 8
Wasp Z 6

X Y and Z represent

X Y Z

A.8 cockroach 3

B.6 spider 2
C.6 tick 3

D.8 crab 2 Q10,2003

 

Feeding in animals

9. The toothless gap in the lower jaw of herbivores is for

A. turning plant material in the mouth for proper chewing
B. holding food material

C. allowing space for more food

D. preventing the animals from biting their tongues.

Q16, 2006

pupil gave the following reasons as to why dairy cattle are given commercial feeds.
(i) To increase milk production.

(ii) Given only to cattle under zero grazing.

(iii) To supplement other feeds.

(iv) Only when fodder crops and pasture are not available.
Which two reasons are CORRECT?

A. (i) and (iii).

B. (ii) and (iv).

C. (i) and (iv).

D. (ii) and (iii). Q11, 2007

 

11. Which one of the following is NOT a rotational

B. Paddocking

method of grazing?

A. Paddocking.

B. Herding.

C. Tethering.

D. Strip. Q21, 2007

 

12. Which one of the following is NOT an essential constituent of commercial animal feeds?
A. Water.

B. Vitamins.

C. Proteins.

D. Carbohydrates. Q31, 2008

 

13. Which one of the following is the main constituent of a balanced diet obtained by animals when they feed on lucern?
A. Carbohydrates.

B. Protein.

C. Vitamins.

D. Minerals. Q13, 2009

C. Tethering

D. Herding Q14,2009

 

15. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about commercial feeds for animals?

A. They are given mainly for protection against diseases.

B. Some are given as the only feed.

C. They are given mainly to increase production.
D. Some are given together with other feed.

Q34, 2010

16. Which one of the following animal feeds provide a diet of proteins and carbohydrates?
A. Clover and lucerne.

B. Sunflower seeds and barley grains

C. Sunflower seeds and maize grains.

D. Lucerne and maize grain. Q37, 2010

 

Livestock Diseases and parasites

 

17. Which one of the following parasites destroys wool in sheep?

18. Which one of the following is NOT an immediate sign of ill health in livestock?

A. Coughing.

B. Blood in stool.

C. Rough coat.

D. Loss of weight. Q19, 2006

 

19. Which one of the following pairs of parasites can be controlled by spraying?
A. Ticks and fleas.

B. Liver flukes and tsetse flies.

C. Fleas and liver flukes.

D. Ticks and tapeworms. Q40, 2007

 

20. Which one of the following pairs of parasites attacks both poultry and rabbits?

A. Mites and lice.

B. Lice and ticks.

C. Mites and fleas.

D. Ticks and mites. Q3, 2010

 

21. Tapeworms in livestock arc found in the

A. large intestines

B. stomach

C. lungs

D. small intestines. Q23, 2010

Adaptation in animals

22. Which one of the following descriptions of beaks would be for a bird that most likely feeds on nectar?
A. Short and curved.

B. Long and curved.

C. Short, and strong.

D. Long and straight. Q38, 2008

 

23. Which one of the following pairs of birds have their beaks adapted to the same type of feeding?

A. Chicken and duck.

B. Sunbird and chicken.

C. Eagle and hawk.

D. Hawk and duck. Q31, 2010

 

24. During the growth of a tadpole, the following parts develop in stages

(i) Hind limbs

(ii) Lungs

(iii) Front limbs

iv) External gills

(v) Tail

The correct order in which the stages occur is A (iv)(i)(ii)(iii)
B (iii) (i)(ii)(iv)(v)

C (v) (iv)(ii)(i)(iii)

D (ii) (iii)(iv)(i)(v) Q35,2003

HEALTH EDUCATION

Medicine & chemicals at home

 

1. Which one of the following groups consists of only diseases that are immunisable?

A. Whooping Cough, Tuberculosis, Tetanus.

B. Measles, Malaria, Diphtheria.

C. Dysentary, Hepatitis B, Poliomyelitis.

D. Bilharzia, Yellow Fever, Cholera. Q5, 2006

 

2. Which one of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A. Whooping cough.

B. Tetanus,

C. Tuberculosis.

D. Measles. Q6, 2007

 

3. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT

according to immunization schedule of infants?

A. The first dose of polio is given at 6 weeks.

B. DPT vaccine is given at birth and at 10 weeks.
C. DPT and measles vaccines are given at 14 weeks.
D. Polio and BCG vaccines are given at birth.

Q9, 2007

4. Which one of the following is NOT important to consider when taking medicine?

A. The dose.

B. The date of manufacture.

C. Duration to complete dose.

D. How to store the medicine.
Q44,2004

 

5. Which one of the following is NOT a reason why drugs should be stored in their properly labelled

container? To avoid

A. contamination

B. getting expired

C. getting spoiled

D. wrong usage. Q46,
2005

 

6. Which one of the following pairs of drugs consists of a
stimulant and a depressant?

A. Khat and tobacco

B. Cocaine and alcohol

C. Cobbler’s glue and heroin

D. Bhang and caffeine Q47, 2003

7. Which one of the following substances is prohibited in Kenya when used as a drug?
A. Beer B Khat

C. Tobacco

D. Cobbler’s glue Q48, 2003

8. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about bhang and Khat? Both
A. Are addictive drugs

B. Are from plant material

C. Are prohibited drugs

D. Affect the nervous system Q51, 2003

9. Which one of the following drugs causes drowsiness when abused?
A. Cocaine.

B. Heroine.

C. Tobacco.

D. Khat. Q20, 2004

10. Which one of the following lists consists of only drugs of abuse that are prohibited in Kenya?
A. Khat, tobacco, cocaine.

B. Cocaine, heroin, mandrax.

C. Bhang, beer, tobacco.

D. Cobblers’ glue, khat, beer. Q37, 2005

11. Which of the following information is usually given when obtaining medicine from a pharmacy?

A. Expiry date.

B. Disposal method of containers.

C. The dose.

D. How to store the medicine. Q20, 2008

12. If medicine remains after taking the prescribed dose, it is advisable to

A. keep and use it later

B. dispose of the medicine

C. continue taking until it is finished

D. give it to someone with the same sickness

Q42, 2010

13. The following are effects of drug abuse:

(i) Rape.

(ii) Addiction.

(iii) Lack of concentration.

(iv) Truancy.

(v) Impaired judgement.

 

Which of them are all health effects?

A. (i) (ii) (iii).

B. (ii) (iii) (iv).

C. (i) (iv) (v).

D. (ii) (iii) (v). Q7, 2006

 

14 Which one of the following effects of drug abuse consists of only social effects?

A. Theft and lack of concentration.

B. Drug induced accidents and truancy.

C. Rape and withdrawal symptoms.

D. Drug addiction and loss of consciousness.

46 ,2008

15. Which one of the following pairs consists only of social effects of drug abuse?
A. Rape and truancy.

B. Lack of concentration and addiction.

C. Accidents and withdrawal.

D. Impaired judgment and loss of consciousness.

Q3, 2008

16. Which one of the following pairs of diseases are infants immunised against at the 9th month after birth?
A. Tuberculosis and polio.
B. Tetanus and whooping cough.
C. Hepatitis B and diphtheria.
D. Measles and yellow fever.
Q13,2010

HIV AND AIDS

 

17. The following are stages of HIV infection:

(i) Window stage.

(ii) Symptoms.

(iii) Fullblown.

(iv) Incubation.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT order of the stages?

A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv).

B. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i).

C. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii).

D. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii). Q6 ,2006

 

19. Which one of the following statements is TRUE
about HIV and AIDS?

A. All HIV positive people have AIDS.

B. During the window stage a person may test negative.
C. It can be transmitted by sharing utensils.

D. It is not spread during the asymptomatic phase.

Q5, 2007

 

20. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about HIV/AIDS? HIV /AIDS may be spread by

A. sharing of unsterilised razor blades

B. coming in contact with other people’s body fluids
C. shaking hands and hugging infected persons

D. transfusing unscreened blood.

Q16, 2010

 

21. Which one of the following statements is TRUE
about the incubation stage of HIV infection?

A. If HIV test is carried out, the result is negative.

B. This is the first stage of infection.

C. There are no visible signs.

D. The body cannot fight diseases. Q4, 2009
22. Which one of the following statements about HIV

and AIDS is TRUE?

A. People living with HIV and AIDS are thin.

B. HIV and AIDS is a curse

C. Premarital sex is the only mode of transmission of HIV and AIDS.
D. People living with HIV and AIDS are advised to eat small amount of food at a time.
Q30, 2008

 

23. Which one of the following pairs of infections consists only of those that are sexually transmitted?

A. Chancroid and HIV.

B. Gonorrhoea and Bilharzia.

C. Syphilis and Typhoid.

D. Gonorrhoea and Tuberculosis. Q6,2009

1. Which one of the following components is found in all environments?
A. Plants.

B. Soil.

C. Air.

D. Water. Q43,2007

Water,air and soil pollution

 

 

ENVIRONMENT

Meaning of environment

1. Which one of the following BEST describes the term environment?

A. The surrounding of a living organism.

B. Where a living organism obtains food from.

C. Where a human being lives.

D. The home of a living organism.
Q50,2008

 

Components of environments

1. Which one of the following DOES NOT pollute the air?

A. Exhaust gases from aeroplanes.

B. Smoke from burning charcoal.

C. Smoke from burning domestic wastes.

D. Gases from decaying animals. Q39, 2006

2. Which one of the following sources of electricity pollutes the environment?

A. Geothermal.

B. Wind-driven generators.

C. Hydro-electric generators.

D. Petrol-driven generators.
Q41,2007

 

3. The chart below represents a simple characteristics of pollutants.
Pollutants

 

 

Fertilizers X
Soil pollutants

River water

Sewage Y

come into contact with

A. oil spills

B. herbicides

C. industrial gases

D. dust. Q43,2009

6. Which one of the following is the BEST method of managing Plastic wastes?

A. Burning

B. Burrying

C. Recycling

 

The pollutants represented by X and Y are

X Y

A. Factory waste Acid rain.

B. Herbicides Oil spillage.

C. Oil spillage Acid rain.

D. Herbicides Factory waste.
Q27,2008

 

 

4. Which one of the following is a way of controlling water pollution?

A. Recycling sewage water.

B. Reusing domestic water for irrigation.

C. Storing water in dams.

D. Using water sparingly.
Q31,2009

 

5. Corrugated iron sheets can be damaged when they

D. Reusing Q23,2009

 

7. Which one of the following pairs of components of the environment do all animals depend on directly?

A. Soil and plants.

B. Air and water.

C. Soil and air.

D. Mineral salts and water.

8. Which one of the following practices pollute soil, air and water?

A. Use of all farm chemicals.

B. Burning of tyres and plastics.

C. Dumping of industrial waste.

D. Use of artificial fertilisers.

 

9. The MAIN reason why it is advisable to spray crops in the direction of the wind is to avoid

A. the chemicals getting into contact with the skin

B. wastage of chemicals

C. polluting the air

D. inhaling the chemicals. Q40, 2006

 

 

 

Environment conversation

1. Which on of the following materials can be recycled?

A.Ash B.Cow dung
C.Coffee husks

D.Scrap metals Q13,2003

1. Which one of the fo0llowing will NOT change when loam soil is added to sandy soil?

A. Texture B.Capillarity C.Colour
D.Fertility Q29,2003

2. Which one of the following NEED NOT be the
same when investigating drainage in different types of soil?

A. Amount of soil in the funnels.

B. Size of funnels.

C. Size of bottles collecting the draining water.

D. Amount of water added to the funnels.
Q22, 2006

 

3. The texture of a soil type depends on the
A. amount of water in the soil

B. organic matter in the soil

C. amount of mineral particles in the soil

D. size of soil particles. Q24, 2007

 

4. Standard five pupils added equal amounts of water to three equal amounts of soil samples J, K and L in funnels as shown in the diagrams below.

 

2009

 

 

 

 

After 10 minutes the pupils measured the amount
of

water that had drained through each soil sample.

 

 

Soil sample

J

K

L
Amount of water

collected (cm3) 28 19 33

Which one of the following statements is a

CORRECT conclusion from the results obtained?

A. J has larger particles than L.

B. K has larger particles than L.

C. K has larger particles than J and L.

D. L has larger particles than J and K. Q15, 2008

 

5. Pupils felt a sample of soil with their fingers. This activity was done to investigate

A. soil texture

B. presence of water in the soil

C. soil capillarity

D. presence of small animals in the soil. Q39,

D.low capillarity Q16,2003

6. Pupils investigated capillarity in different type of soil. Their results were as shown in the diagram below.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

From the results the soil samples X, Y and Z are most likely to be
X Y Z

A. Clay Loam Sand

B. Sand Clay Loam

C. Clay Sand Loam

D. Sand Loam Clay Q20, 2010

 

7. The soil that can be used to make long ribbons has A.Cracks when dry
B.large air spaces

C.rough texture

8. Which one of the following properties of clay soil would greatly contribute to flooding in an area?
A. High capillarity.
B. Poor drainage.
C. Fine texture.
D. Stickiness. Q10, 2004

9. The main reason why sandy soil is mixed with cement in building is because it
A. drains well
B. has large air spaces
C. has large particles
D. mixes easily with cement Q11,2004

10. The table below shows observations made when four soil samples P, Q, R and S were mixed with water and then rolled out to make ribbons.

Soil sample Characteristic

P Held its shape.

Q Cracked.

R Could not be rolled.

S Could not hold its shape.

 

Which one of the samples has the lowest capillarity?

A. P.

B. Q.

C. R.

D. S. Q19,2004

B. Water.

C. Organic matter.

D. Mineral salts. Q41,2005

 

 

Components of soil

 

1.The component of soil that improves its water

 

11. Which one of the following characteristics of sandy soil DOES NOT explain why water drains through it easily?
A. Rough texture.

B. Large particles.

C. Large air spaces.

D. Shiny particles. Q32,2005

 

12. Which one of the following NEED NOT be the same when comparing capillarity in different types of soil?

A. Diameter of the tubes.

B. Amount of each type of soil.

C. Time allowed for the experiment.

D. Amount of water used. Q31,2005

 

13. Which one of the following soil components is
LEAST affected when soil in a container is heated?

A. Air.

holding capacity is

A. mineral salts

B. air

C. organic matter

D. living organisms Q49 2008

 

2. In an experiment to investigate a certain component of soil, water was added to garden soil in a glass container. The component of soil investigated was

A. air

B. mineral particles

C. living organisms

D. organic matter. Q21, 2010

 

 

Soil erosion

1. The following are effects of soil erosion:
(i) Small holes in the ground.

(ii) Top layer of soil missing.

(iii) Small and shallow channels in the ground.

(iv) V-shaped trenches in the ground.

 

Which effects are as a result of splash and rill types of erosion?
A. (i) and (iv).

B. (i) and (iii).

C. (ii) and (iii).

D. (ii) and (iv). Q23, 2006

farmer noticed small and shallow channels forming in the soil in the garden due to running water. This type of soil erosion is called

A. splash

B. rill

C. sheet

D. gulley. Q37 ,2007

3. Which one of the following LEAST conserves soil?
A. Mulching.

B. Planting cover crops.

C. Contour ploughing.

D. Terracing. Q18, 2008

 

4. Which one of the following activities can be used to demonstrate rill erosion? Pouring water
A. at different positions of a slanting soil surface

B. in channels of soil on a slanting surface

C. on a flat surface of soil

D. on a flat surface using a tin with any holes.

Q35, 2009

5. Which one of the following practices is an advantage to the soil?

A. Ploughing across the contours.

B. Disposal of vegetable refuse.

C. Burning of crop remains.

D. Use of herbicides. Q25, 2009

 

Soil Fertility

1. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about manures? They

A. improve the ability of the soil to hold water

B. bind soil particles

C. release nutrients very fast to the soil

D. improve air circulation in the soil. Q34, 2008

2. Which one of the following ways of improving soil fertility will take the longest time for plants to get nutrients?

When using

A. compost manure

B. compound fertilizer

C. farm yard manure

D. green manure. Q38,
2009

3. The diagram below represents an arrangement materials in a compost manure heap.

In the diagram the layer of ash is represented by

A. K

3.Draining of stagnant water can prevent the spread of

B. L
C. M A. cholera and typhoid

B. bilharzia and malaria
D. N Q9,2010 C. typhoid and malaria
D. cholera and bilharzia. Q36,2008

 

 

WATER

Water borne diseases

1. Which one of the following practices will help to prevent the spread of cholera?
A. Spraying chemicals in stagnant water.

B. Wearing protective shoes when passing through water.

C. Drinking filtered water.

D. Covering pit latrines after use.
Q21,2006

 

2. Wearing protective clothing while walking in stagnant water can prevent one from contracting

A. bilharzia

B. typhoid

C. typhoid and cholera

D. bilharzia and cholera. Q8,2007

4. which one of the following diseases can be prevented by wearing gumboots and gloves?

A. Typhoid.

B. Malaria.

C. Bilharzias.

D. Cholera. Q24,2009

 

5. Presence of blood in urine and faeces in human beings may be a sign of
A. typhoid

B. bilharzia

C. malaria

D. cholera. Q30,2010

 

6. Which one of the following diseases CANNOT be prevented by maintaining proper hygiene?

A. Typhoid.

B. Biharzia.

C. Cholera.

D. Malaria. Q44,2010

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Water pollution

1. Which one of the following. is likely to cause an increased growth of water plants in a nearby river? The presence of a
A. market centre

B. factory

C. garage

D. tea farm. Q32,2008

 

Water conservation

1. Which one of the following statements about water is
TRUE?

A. Water mixes with all liquids

B. Water has definite size

C. Water has definite shape

D. Water is a good conductor of heat. Q27, 2005

2. Which one of the following is a method of softening hard water?

A. Filtering.

B. Boiling.

C. Decanting.

D. Sieving. Q20,2006

1. In which one of the following practices is water re-used?
A. Using dirty water from the kitchen for watering plants.
B. Collecting rainwater from the roof for domestic uses.
C. Getting clean water from dirty water by boiling and cooling the steam.
D. Storing water in dams to be used in irrigation. Q23,2007

 

Hard and soft water

4.Which one of the following foods is CORRECTLY
matched to its group?

 

 

FOOD AND NUTRITION
Types of foods

child suffering from kwashiorkor should be given a diet rich in
A. carbohydrates

B. fats

C. vitamins

D. proteins. Q7,2007

 

2. The function of fibre in the human diet is to

A. provide the body with nutrients

B. transport digested food

C. prevent constipation

D. help in digestion of food Q35,2007

 

3. Which one of the following is a function of fibre in the diet?

A. Helps in getting rid of undigested food.

B. Helps in absorption of digested food.

C. Adds nutrients to the body.

D. Helps in digestion of food. Q35,2008

Food Food group

A. Groundnuts Energy giving.

B. Eggs Protective.

C. Carrots Energy giving.

D. Bananas Body building.
Q36,2010

 

 

Balanced diet

. 1.The following signs and symptoms were observed in a certain child:
(i) Thin and weak.

(ii) Wrinkled face.

(iii) Pot bellied.

(iv) Hungry and crying a lot.

 

The child was most likely suffering from

A. anaemia

B. rickets

C. kwashiorkor

D. marasmus. Q41,2006

2. Which one of the following groups consists only of foodstuffs that protect the body against diseases?

A. Lemon, cabbage, carrot.

B. Beans, groundnuts, fish.

C. Maize, potatoes, rice.

D. Meat, orange, spinach. Q42,2006

3. The most likely reason why some expectant mothers crave for soil is to

A. increase breast milk production after delivery

B. increase appetite

C. help in digestion of food

D. provide sufficient mineral nutrients
Q44,2006

4. Which one of the following groups consists of only foodstuffs that are used for body building and
repair?

A. Rice, oranges, meat.

B. Wheat, fish, maize.

C. Beans, potatoes, groundnuts.

D. Eggs, peas, milk. Q34,2007

 

child with thin and brown hair, swollen hands, feel and face is also likely to
A. have knock knees

B. appear weak and inactive

C. have a face like an old person

D. have faster heart beats.
Q33,2008

 

6. Which one of the following groups of foodstuffs constitutes a balanced diet?
A. Potatoes, beans, eggs

B. Chicken, cabbage, beans

C. Rice, chapatti, beef

D. Peas, ugali, spinach Q28,2009

 

 

Methods of preserving food

1. The purpose of salt in food preservation is to

A. remove water

B. add flavour

C. remove air

D. lower the temperature.
Q43,2006

2. The following are some methods of preserving foods:

(i) smoking

(ii) drying

(iii) freezing

(iv) salting

(v) canning

 

Which methods are traditional?

A. (ii), (iv) and (v).

B. (ii), (iii) and (v).

C. (i), (iii) and (iv).

D. (i), (ii) and (iv). Q13,2007

3. Which one of the following is a modern method of preserving food?

A. Canning.

B. Salting.

C. Smoking.

D. Drying. Q45,2009

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4. Which one of the following methods of preserving food is both modern and traditional

A. Salting.

B. Using honey.

C. Smoking.

D. Drying. Q32,2010

 

 

Food for special groups of people in the society

C. to increase milk production

D. to replace blood lost during birth.
Q48,2008

 

2. The MAIN reason why a baby needs to be breast fed by the mother is that the milk produced

A. helps to build the baby’s immunity

B. helps the baby to grow fast

C. hclps the baby’s bones to be strong

D. is easily digested. Q32,2009

 

3. Which one of the following deficiency diseases is caused by lack of calcium in the diet?

A. Anaemia.

B. Kwashiorkor.

C. Rickets.

D. Marasmus. Q33,2010

lactating mother needs foods rich in iron

A. to protect the baby against diseases

B. for the formation of strong bones in the baby

PROPERTIES OF MATTER

Characteristics of matter

plastic cup was inverted over in a basin as shown in the diagram below. It was observed that the water did not enter the cup

 

Which one of the following could be done to make water enter the cup?

A. Pushing the cup to the bottom

B. Adding more water to the basin

C. Reducing the size of the cup by cutting

D. Making a hole at the bottom of the cup
Q36,2003

2. A change in the force of gravity on an object will change its

A. mass

B. weight

C. volume

D. Density Q7,2004

3. Which one of the following is NOT definite for liquids?
A. Shape.

B. Volume.
C. Mass.
D. Density. Q13, 2004

4.. Which one of the following is NOT required when finding the density of a regular solid?

A. Spring balance.

B. Ruler.

C. Overflow can.

D. String.
Q26,2005

5. Which one of the following statements about water is
TRUE?

A. Water mixes with all liquids

B. Water has definite size

C. Water has definite shape

D. Water is a good conductor of heat.
Q27,2005

 

6. Which of the following processes involve loss of heat to the surroundings?
A. Melting and freezing.

B. Evaporation and condensation.

C. Freezing and condensation.

D. Melting and evaporation.
Q38,2005

 

7. The mass of1cm3 of a substance is its

A. Volume

B. Density

C. Weight

D. surface area Q11, 2003

 

8. The diagram below represents a setup that can be used to demonstrate a certain property of metals.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which property of metals was being demonstrated?

A. Metals expand when heated.

B. Metals bend when heated.

C. Solids conduct heat.

D. Hot metals are pulled down by weight.
Q25,2006

 

pupil investigating a certain aspect of pressure in a liquid used a setup shown in the diagram below.

 

 

 

 

 

What conclusion could the pupil make from the investigation?
A. Air exerts pressure on the surface of a liquid.

B. Pressure in a liquid increases with depth.

C. Pressure in a liquid is equal at the same depth.

D. Pressure in a liquid is exerted on the sides only.

Q26,2006

7. The temperature at which a substance freezes is the same temperature at which the substance
A. condenses

B. evaporates

C. boils

D. melts. Q27,2006

8. Which one of the following consists only of substances that have no definite shape but have definite volume?
A. Stone, kerosene, carbon dioxide.

B. Oil, toothpaste, glue.

C. Clay, flour, cement.

D. Nitrogen, oxygen, water vapour.
Q28,2006

 

9. The diagram below represents a setup that can be used to

 

For the demonstration to work a burning candle must be placed at
A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. S Q29,2006

 

10. The diagram below shows a set up that was used to demonstrate a certain property of matter.

 

 

 

d

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The coloured water rises up the straw because

A. liquids expand when heated

B. liquids occupy space

C. air occupies space

D. air expands when heated. Q27,2007

 

11. Which of the following materials will NOT be required in an experiment to show that pressure in a liquid increases with depth?

A. Tin can.

B. Water.

C. Nail.

D. Collecting jar. Q29,2007

 

12.. The diagram below shows a set-up that was used to

investigate a certain property of air.

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following would NOT

observed if the tin can was heated gently?

A. Bubbles in the basin.

B. Drop of ink moving towards water in the basin.

C. Water level in the basin decreasing when

heating is stopped.

D. Water level in the glass tube decreasing when heating is stopped. Q11,2008

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13. The diagram below represents a set-up that can be used to demonstrate a certain aspect of heat.

 

A. solids melt when heated

B. metals expand when heated

C. solids conduct heat

D. metals bend when heated. Q8,2009

 

14. The diagram below represents a set-up that was used to demonstrate a certain property of matter.

 

 

 

 

The property demonstrated was

A. Air occupies space.

B. Water exerts pressure.

C. Air has mass.

D. Water occupies space. Q21,2009

 

15. The diagram below represents a set-up that can be used to demonstrate certain processes involved in change of state of matter.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The process that takes place at point labelled Q is

A. boiling

B. condensation

C. Evaporation

D. freezing. Q34,2009

 

16. Which one of the following pairs consists only of substances that are in the same state of matter?

A. Oil and water vapour.

B. Wax and glue.

C. Ice and water.

D. Air and water vapour.
Q19,2010

 

17. The diagram below represents a set up that is used to demonstrate a certain process.

The process investigated is

A. evaporation

B. freezing

C. condensation

D. convection.
Q27,2010

Floating and sinking

1. Which one of the following DOES NOT affect floating and sinking of an object?
A. Size.

B. Shape.

C. Density.

D. Weight. Q40,2005

 

2.A sufuria made up of steel weighing 1000 g floats on

water while a nail made of iron weighing 50 g sinks. This is because of difference in

A. type of material

B. shape

C. volume

D. mass. Q28,2007

 

3. Which one of the following factors will NOT affect sinking and floating of a material in water? The
A. mass of the material

B. type of the material

C. shape of the material

D. size of the material.
Q12,2008

 

4. Which one of the following activities will make an aluminium foil that was floating on water sink?

A. Increasing amount of water.

B. Rolling the aluminium foil into a tube.

C. Making holes on the aluminium foil.

D. Crushing the aluminium foil into a ball.
Q37,2009

5. Which one of the following pairs consists only
of materials that would not sink in water even when their shape is changed?
A. Wax and wood.
B. Wood and aluminium.
C. Aluminium andglass.
D. Glass and wax. Q11,2010

Composition of air
1.. The diagram below represents a set up that can be used to demonstrate a certain property of air.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which property of air is demonstrated by the set up?

A. Air exerts pressure in all directions.

B. Air occupies space.

C. Part of air is used in burning.

D. Air expands when heated. Q12, 2005

 

glass containing ice cubes was placed in the open. After some time the outer surface of the glass

became wet. This shows that

A. air contains water vapor

B. ice melts to form water

C. air is a mixture of gases

D. air can be cooled. Q25, 22005

 

3. The component of air used in making plant food is A. 0.03%
B. 0.97%

C. 21%

D. 78%. Q36, 2005

4. The percentage of the component of air that is fixed by bacteria in root nodules to make nutrients for the plant is

A. 0.03%

B. 0.97%

C. 21%

D. 78%. Q30,2006

 

5. The component that makes up 0.97% of air is used in

A. rusting

B. preservation of soft drinks

C. electric bulbs

D. making proteins. Q25,2007

 

6. Which one of the following are the percentages of carbon dioxide and nitrogen in the air?
A. 1% and 21%.

B. 0.03% and 78%.

C. 21% and 78%.

D. 0.03% and 1%. Q9,2008

 

7. In which one of the following processes is oxygen

NOT used?

A. Making plant food.

B. Burning

C. Breathing.

D. Germination of seed Q29,2008

8. The following are some uses of components of air:

(i) manufacture of electric bulbs

(ii) supporting burning

(iii) manufacture of soft drinks

(iv) germination of seeds

(v) putting out fires

Which one of the uses are for carbon dioxide?

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iv)

C. (iii) and (v)

D. (iii) and (iv) Q16,209

 

9. Which one of the following components of air is
NOT CORRECTLY matched with its use’?
Component of air Use of air
A. Nitrogen Used by plants to make
proteins.
B. Carbon dioxide Manufacture of soft drinks.
C. Oxygen Manufacture of plant food.
D. Inert gases In electric bulbs.
Q12,2010

 

Making mixtures

1. When lime water was mixed with juice obtained from hibiscus flower, it changed colour. Which of the following substances WOULD NOT make hibiscus flower juice change to the same colour?

A,Wet wood ash

B. Sour milk

C. Baking powder

D. Chalk dust Q40,2003

 

2. Which of the following liquids mix?

A. Kerosene and water.

B. Water and milk.

C. Milk and kerosene.

D. Cooking oil and milk. Q24,2006

 

Magnetism

3. Which one of the following pairs consists only of materials that are non-magnetic?

A. Copper and aluminium.

B. Steel and zinc.

C. Silver and steel.

D. Iron and aluminium. Q36,2009

 

4. Which one of the following groups consists of materials that are ALL magnetic?
A. Staple pins, scissors, metallic bottle top.

B. Silver coin, knife, marble balls.

C. Ball bearing, copper coin, razor blade.

D. Hack-saw, steel wool, aluminium plate.
Q40,2010

 

1. Which one of the following consists of only materials

that are ALL non-magnetic?

A. Aluminium foil, a shilling coin.

B. Iron nails, staple pins.

C. Metal scissors, steel wool.

D Piece of glass, sewing needle. Q48,2007

 

2. Which one of the following consists of magnetic materials only?
A. Tin, aluminium, copper.

B. Iron, steel, cobalt.

C. Tin, iron, copper.

D. Aluminium, steel, cobalt. Q16,2008

Separation of mixitures

1. Sifting, picking and sieving are some methods of separating mixtures. Which one of the following mixtures can be separated by all the three methods?

A. Maize and beans.

B. Sand and rice.

C. Maize flour and small pieces of iron.

D. Sugar and tiny pieces of glass. Q45, 2005

 

2. Which one of the following materials is magnetic?

A. Aluminium plate.

B. Steel razor blade.

C. Silver coin.

D. Copper ring. Q47, 2005

3. In which one of the following methods of separation would be recovered from a mixture of two subtances?

A.Evaporation B.Filtration C.Decanting
D.Distillation Q12, 2003

 

 

4. Which one of the following is the last step when separating a mixture of sand and salt?
A. Dissolving.

B. Filtering

C. Evaporating.

D. Decanting. Q31,2006

 

5. The following are liquids added together in glass bottles labelled P, Q, R and S by some pupils.

P – kerosene and cooking oil

Q – water and cooking oil

Which glass bottle contains liquids that cannot be separated by decanting?
A. P.

B. Q.

C. R.

D. S. Q16,2007

 

6. Which one of the following groups of methods can be used to separate solid mixtures only?

A. Sieving, picking, winnowing.

B. Picking, use of magnet, decanting.

C. Winnowing, sieving, filtration.

D. Use of magnet, filtration, decanting.
Q44,2007

 

7. The MOST appropriate method of separating a mixture of sand and salt after addition of water is A decanting
B. filtering

C. sieving

D. evaporating.
Q28,2008

 

8. The chart below represents a simple classification of liquids.

10. The following are some liquids:

(i) Water

(ii) Kerosene

(iii) Fresh milk

(iv) Cooking oil.

 

Which liquids are represented by P and Q?

P Q

A. Methylated spirit Milk.

B. Engine oil Methylated spirit

C. Cooking oil Milk

D. Turpentine Engine oil.
Q50,2009

 

9. The following are methods of separating mixtures:

(i) picking

(ii) filtering

(iii) decanting

(iv) sieving

Which two liquids will mix when put in a container?
A. (i) and (iv).

B. (ii) and (iii).

C. (iii) and (iv).

D. (ii) and (iv). Q39,2010

 

11. Which one of the following mixtures can separated by winnowing?

A. Flour and husks.

B. Maize and millet.

C. Rice and sand.

D. Millet and husks Q24,2010

Which two methods are suitable for separating a mixture of water and sand?

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (i) and (iv)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (ii) and (iv) Q18,2009

12.

The activities below are carried out when separating a mixture of salt, iron fillings, and sand but not in the correct order.

Filter the mixture through a sieve Add water to the mixture
Leave the mixture in the sun

Pass a magnet through the magnet

A.(iv)(ii)(i)(iii)

B.(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)

C.(ii)(iii)(iv)(i)

D.(iv)(i)(ii)(iii Q49,2003

 

changes of states

 

1. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE about pressure exerted by liquids?

Pressure in liquids increases when the A Amount of liquid is increased
B Diameter of container is reduced C Depth of liquid is increased
D Container with liquid is raised
Q38,2003

2. The diagram below represents a straw fitted in an airtight glass bottle containing a liquid

 

 

 

 

 

 

The sucking of the liquid is difficult because A.The straw does no reach the bottom
B.The liquid does not fill the bottle

C.The air inside the straw prevents the liquid from rising
D.Air pressure does not act on the liquid
Q20,2003

 

3. The processes 1, II, III and IV in the chart below bring about changes in states of matter.

 

 

 

 

The processes that require increase in temperature are:
A. III, IV

B. I, II

C. II, IV

D. I, III. Q10,2008

 

Effects of heat on matter

1. In which of the following activities can CORRECT CONCLUSION be drawn about evaporation of equal amounts of water and spirit?

A. Putting the liquids in bottle tops and placing both in the sun

B. Putting one liquid in a bottle top and the other in a shoe polish tin lid then placing the two in the sun

C. Putting the liquids in bottle tops then placing one in the sun and heating the other with a candle

D. Putting one liquid in a bottle top and the other in a shoe polish tin lid then heating both of them with a candle
Q37,2003

2. Which one of the following pairs of processes is as a result of increase in temperature?
A. Melting and evaporation.

B. Condensation and freezing.

C. Condensation and evaporation.

 

D. Melting and freezing. Q26,2007

 

3. Which one of the following is a reason why a glass container is likely to break if hot water is poured into it?
A. Sudden expansion of the inner side of the glass wall.

B. Sudden expansion of air in the container.

C. Sudden contraction of the outer side of the glass wall.
D. The fact that the heated wall had expanded.

Q48,2010

 

 

ENERGY
Heat energy

1. The diagram below represents a set up used by pupils to compare the rate at which heat is conducted in metals

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Pupils would make wrong conclusions if they used A Metals of different thickness
B Different types of pins

C Metals of different lengths

D Different types of metals Q19,2003

2. Which one of the following pairs of processes involves absorption of heat from the surroundings?

A. Condensation and evaporation.

B. Freezing and condensation.

C. Melting and freezing.

D. Evaporation and melting.
Q24,2004

 

3. The diagram below represents a set up that is used to demonstrate a certain property of air.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The demonstration shows that air

A. is dissolved in water

B. has weight

C. occupies space

D. exerts pressure Q35,2004

 

4. Which of the following processes involve loss of heat to the surroundings?

A. Melting and freezing.

B. Evaporation and condensation.

C. Freezing and condensation.

D. Melting and evaporation. Q38, 2005
5. Heat reaches the feet of a person seated by the side of a fire by
A. conduction and convection

B. radiation only

C. convection only

D. radiation and convection.
Q38,2006

 

6. The reason why an ordinary jiko without a clay lining is not recommended for use is because.

A. it pollutes the environment

B. of the large amounts of charcoal used

C. it takes a long time when cooking

D. it gets too hot to hold.
Q15,2007

 

plastic bottle was placed in a carton and insulating material put around the bottle as shown in the diagram below. The bottle was then filled with hot water.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following would help keep the water hot for a longer time?

A. Putting a lining of aluminum foil around the carton.

B. Using insulating material with large air spaces.

C. Using black insulating material.

D. Using a metal box instead of a carton.
Q3,2003

 

8. When sand particles are put in a glass of cold water and heated at the bottom, the particles are seen to rise and fall.This is because sand particles

A. are carried by hot water which comes down on cooling

B. rise when heated and come down on cooling

C. become lighter than water when heated

D. and water rise when heated and come down on cooling. Q22,2008

9. When pieces of paper are dropped above a fire they rise. This is because

A. heat makes the paper lighter than air

B. paper expands when heated

C. hot air carries the paper upwards

D. heat from the fire carries the paper upwards.
Q20,2009

10. Which one of the following is TRUE about heat transfer by convention? It takes place in
A. Solids only

B. Liquid and gases

C. Gases only

D. Solids and gases. Q49,2009

Sound energy

1. In a box guitar high sound can be produced without changing the tension of the strings by

A. plucking the strings hard

B. increasing the lengths of the strings

C. using thinner strings

D. increasing the size of the box.
Q4,2005

 

Light energy

1. The splitting of white light into its constituent colours is called?

A.Reflection B.diffraction C.refraction
D.Dispersion Q1,2003

2.A stone at the bottom of a pond appears nearer the surface due to

A. refraction

B. dispersion

C. diffraction

D. Reflection Q28,2004

 

3. If the size of the hole in the pinhole camera is increased, the image formed is

A. enlarged

B. blurred

C. upright

D. not real Q26,2004

 

4. Which one of the following is TRUE about the rainbow? It forms

A. before heavy rainfall

B. when it rains while the sun is shining

C. when the sky is covered with thick clouds

D. when it rains in the afternoon. Q35,2006

 

5.. Which one of the following is a natural way of lighting a

house? Using a

A. candle

B. torch

C. hurricane lamp

D. transparent roof. Q42,2007

6.A card with the word BRICK written on it was placed in front of a mirror. Which one of the following shows how the word would appear in the mirror?

 

 

 

7. Which one of the following is NOT a source of light?

A. Moon.

B. Firefly.

C. Star.

D. Sun. Q26,2008

 

8. The diagram below represents a set-up that is used to

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The property investigated is that light

A. is refracted

B. travels in a straight line

C. is dispersed

D. does not pass through opaque materials.
Q42,2008

 

9. Which one of the following is NOT a reason for lighting a house?

A. For safety purposes.

B. To discourage pests.

C. To feel warm.

D. To read comfortably.
Q43,2008

 

ruler placed slanting and partially immersed in water appears bent because light
A. from that part of the ruler under water is reflected
B. from that part of the ruler under water is refracted

C. from that part of the ruler under water is scattered
D. travels in a straight line in the same medium.
Q7,2009

11.. Which one of the following materials allows light to pass through it clearly?

A. Frosted glass.

B. Mirror.

C. Clean water.

D. Milk. Q22,2009

 

12.. The following are activities involved in

demonstrating that light travels in a straight line:

(i) Light a candle and place if at the opposite end of the cardboards

(ii) Thread a string through the holes

(iii) Observe the candle through the holes

(iv) Make a hole at the same level in the three cardboards

(v) cut three similar squares of cardboard and fix each cardboard to a piece of wood.

Which one of the following is the correct order of activities?
A. (v), (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

B. (v), (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

C. (v), (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

D. (v), (iii). (iv), (ii), (i). Q46,2009

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

13. The diagram below represents a set up that is used to investigate a certain aspect of light.

 

 

 

 

 

 

The aspect investigated is

A. light travels in a straight line

B. refraction

C. reflection

D. passage of light through materials.
Q29,2010

14. The diagram below represents a set up used to investigate a certain aspect of light.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The aspect being investigated

A. reflection of light

B. making a rainbow

C. refraction of light

D. how light travels Q47,2010

Electricity

1. The diagram below represents a circuit

 

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the circuit? The

A. Bulb uses power from three cells

B. Bulb uses power from one cell

C. Cells are connected in series

D. Cells are connected in parallel
Q17,2003

 

2. Tall buildings are fitted with sharp pointed metal

rods at their tops and connected to the ground. The rods are for

A. protecting the buildings against lightning

B. protecting electricity users from being electrocuted

C. fixing aerials for radios and televisions

D. allowing expansion of walls during hot weather.

Q34,2006

3. Which one of the following DOES NOT function the same way as a bicycle dynamo when used to produce electricity?
A. Hydro-electric generator.

B. Car battery.

C. Diesel generator.

D. Wind driven turbines. Q45,2007

 

4. In which one of the following circuit diagrams will the bulb not light?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. The diagram below represents a set up that can be used to investigate good and poor conductors of electricity.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following materials when used to connect wires at position K would make the bulb light?
A. Piece of thread.

B. Razor blade.

C. Piece of glass.

D. Cello tape. Q6,2010

 

6. The diagram below represents a safety sign when dealing with electricity.

 

 

 

 

The sign means
A. do not insert objects into electric socket

B. do not use appliances with damaged plugs or wires
C. do not plug in many electrical appliances

D. do not get near. Q46,2010

 

 

Forms of energy
1. Which one of the following pairs of renewable sources of energy?

A.Firewood and kerosene B.Waterfall and petrol C.Biogas and charcoal
D.Wind and coal Q18, 2003

2. Which one of the following sources of energy is non- renewable?

A. Kerosene.

B. Firewood.

C. Solar.

D. Biogas. Q27, 2004

3. Which one of the following sources of energy is renewable?
A. Kerosene.

B. Biogas from cow dung.

C. Coal.

D. Cooking gas from crude oil. Q1, 2005

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4. Steam can be used to drive a wheel as in the set up shown in the diagram below

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following CANNOT increase the speed of the rotating wheel?

A. Using blades made from lighter material B.Increasing the size of the blades C.Increasing the size of the small hole D.Increasing the amount of heat

4. Which one of the following is an example of force?
A. Weight B,Energy C.Pressure
D.Work Q27,2003

5. Coins were arranged in a pile as shown in the diagram below.

When the coin at the bottom was knocked out suddenly using a ruler, it moved out leaving the pile intact.

The pile remained intact because of

A. friction.

B. gravity.

C. inertia.

D. weight. Q48,2004

6. When an object is thrown up in the air it falls because it
A. is pulled by the earth.

B. exerts pressure.

C. is resisted by air. Q15,2005

 

7..Which one of the following is CORRECT about a solar heater? A solar heater changes
A. heat energy to electrical energy

B. light energy to electrical energy

C. chemical energy to heat energy

D. light energy to heat energy. Q33,2006

K.C.P.E REVISION 360

 

8. Which one of the following sources of energy DOES NOT contain chemical energy?

A. Car battery.

B. Bicycle dynamo.

C. Food.

D. Firewood. Q37,2006

9. The following are forms of energy:

(i) heat

(ii) electricity

(iii) light

(iv) sound

The two forms of energy that DO NOT require a medium for transmission are
A. (ii) and (iv)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (i) and (ii)

D. (iii) and (iv). Q31,2007

 

10. Which one of the following groups of sources of energy consists of only sources that have chemical energy?

A. Charcoal, kerosene, food.

B. Dynamo, drycell, firewood.

C. Biogas, hydroelectric power generator, matches.

D. Geothermal, generator, cooking gas, car battery.

Q25,2010

Energy changes

1. Below is an energy transformation:

Chemical electrical heat light.

 

In which one of the following does the energy transformation shown take place when used to produce light?
A. Geothermal.

B. Car battery.

C. Electric bulb.

D. Bicycle dynamo. Q5,2005

 

2. .Which one of the following energy transformations takes place when a radio that uses cells is operating?
A. Chemical —> electrical —> magnetic —> kinetic
—> sound

 

B. Magnetic —> electrical —> kinetic —> chemical

—> sound.

C. Electrical —> chemical —> kinetic —> magnetic

—> sound.

D. Kinetic —> chemical —> electrical —>magnetic —
> sound. Q36,2006

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

3. The diagram below shows a stone being thrown using a catapult.

 

The energy transformation that occurs at the section marked P is
A. electrical —» magnetic

B. chemical —» electrical

C. heat —» electricity

 

The form of energy in the rubber band before the stone is released is
A. kinetic

B. potential

C. chemical

D. sound. Q32,2006

 

4.. The diagram below represents a circuit that can be used to take a temporary magnet.

 

cells

D. chemical —» magnetic.
Q30,2007

 

5. Which one of the following shows the correct order of energy changes that take place when a bulb is connected to a dry cell to produce light?

A. Chemical —» heat —» electrical —» light.

B. Electrical —» chemical —» heat —» light.

C. Chemical —» electrical —» heat —» light.

D. Electrical —» heat —» chemical —» light.
Q24,2008

 

6. The beginning of energy transformations in radio that uses dry cells is

 

Copper wire

 

coil

Copper

A. electrical

B. magnetic

C. chemical

D. sound.
Q45,2010

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 363

3. The following practices help to conserve energy:

(i) using improved firewood jikos

(ii) switching off lights that use hydro-electric power when not needed
(iii) using public transport whenever possible

(iv) using biogas for cooking

 

Which two practices conserve non-renewable sources of energy?
A. (i) and (ii).

 

Conservation of energy

1. Which one of the following is the MAIN reason why the inside of a solar drier is painted black?

A. To prevent rusting.

B. To make it last longer.

C. To make it absorb heat.

D. To decorate it. Q2,2005

 

2. Which one of the following sources of energy is renewable?
A. Kerosene.

B. Biogas from cow dung.

C. Coal.

D. Cooking gas from crude oil. Q1,2005

B. (ii) and (iii).

C. (ii) and (iv).

D. (iii) and (iv). Q33,2007

 

4. Which one of the following groups of sources of energyconsists of only renewable sources?

A. Firewood, kerosene, waterfall.

B. Wind, charcoal, biogas.

C. Diesel, waterfall, wind.

D. Biogas, kerosene, firewood.
Q43,2008

 

5. The following are ways of maintaining tools

EXCEPT:

A. cleaning after use

B. greasing

C. sharpening

D. using them regularly. Q44,2008

6. Which one of the following DOES NOT explain why an improved jiko conserves energy? It has

A. A cone shape

B. Walls made of clay

C. A small space for holding charcoal

D. An outer cover made of metal.
Q26,2009

 

7. Which one of the following is NOT a method of conserving energy? Using

A. a wind mill to pump water

B. biogas for cooking

C. solar panels to produce electricity

D. a traditional jiko for cooking Q28,2010

8. The following are ways of maintaining tools

EXCEPT:

A. cleaning after use

B. greasing

C. sharpening

D. using them regularly. Q45,2008

When in use the fulcrum is at point

9. Which one of the following is NOT a practice tor maintaining simple tools?

A. Oiling.

B. Using them for the right purpose.

C. Sharpening.

D. Storing in a sale place. Q40,2009

 

 

 

MAKING WORK EASIER

Simple tools

A P

B. Q

C. R

D. S
Q18,2004

 

2. Which one of the following machines is the effort equal to the load and the effort distance equal to the load distance?
A. Inclined plane.
B. Wheel and axle.
C. Lever.
D. Single fixed pulley. Q8.,2004

3. The diagram below represents a simple machine in use.

1.The diagram below represents a fishing rod with points labelled P, Q, R and S.

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 366

A. Spade.

B. Wheelbarrow.

C. Claw hammer.

The machine is an example of

A. an inclined plane

B. a wheel and axle

C. a lever

D. a pulley Q16,2005

 

 

4. Which one of the following pairs of levers has the position of load, fulcrum and effort as a forearm?

A. Fishing rod and pliers.

B. Spade and tongs.

C. Bottle top opener and nutcracker.

D. Scissors and claw hammer. Q29,2005

 

5. The reason for using rollers when moving heavy objects on a floor is to
A. make objects lighter

B. avoid damaging the floor

C. increase speed of moving objects

D. reduce force that opposes movement.
Q17,2005

 

6. Which one of the following levers when in use has the position of the effort between the load and the fulcrum?

D. Crowbar. Q45,2006

 

7. The diagram below represents a simple machine.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which of the positions labelled P, Q and R would represent the load, effort and fulcrum when the machine is in use?
Load Effort Fulcrum

A. P Q R

B. R P Q

C. Q P R

D. R Q P Q46,2007

8. The diagram below represents a block of wood being pushed along a surface towards point X.

 

 

 

L

 

J

Which one of the arrows represents the direction of the force of friction?
A J.

B. K.

C. L.

D. M. Q47,2007

 

9. The purpose of using rollers to move a load is to

A. increase the force required to push the load

B. reduce the force that hinders movement of the load

C. make the load lighter

D. control the direction of the movement of the load.

Q48, 2009

certain machine, when in use, can work with load, effort and fulcrum at different positions as shown in the diagrams I and II.

 

 

 

 

The machine is

A. wheelbarrow

B. Crowbar

C. Spade

D. claw hammer. Q17, 2009

 

 

Balancing

1. On a see-saw a small boy can lift a big boy when

A. the small boy stands on it

B. the big boy moves closer to the fulcrum

C. the two boys interchange positions

D. the two boys move equal distances away from the fulcrum. Q49,2010

2. The following activities are carried out when making a beam balance but not in the correct order:
(i) Suspend the arm to find balance point and mark.
(ii) Make a base, a stand and the arm. (iil) Fix the stand and the arm to the base.
(iv) Suspend tins on both sides of the arm.

 

Which one of the following is the CORRECT order in which the activities are carried out?
A. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv).

B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv).

C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i).

D. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii). Q48,2006

3. In which of the following is work made easier by changing the direction of force applied?

A. Ladder.

B. Flag post.

C. Staircase.

D. A road winding uphill. Q27, 2009

.4.On a see-saw a small boy can lift a big boy when

A. the small boy stands on it

B. the big boy moves closer to the fulcrum

C. the two boys interchange positions

D. the two boys move equal distances away from the fulcrum. Q49, 2010

 

Movement

1. Which one of the following statements is
CORRECT about a stone thrown a few metres

directly upwards by a passenger in a moving lorry? The stone will fall

A. in front of the person

B. behind the person

C. on the person

D. behind the lorry. Q49,2006

 

2. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE

about the force that opposes movement? The force

A. can be reduced by streamlining

B. makes the load heavier

C. increases effort required to move the load

D. produces heat. Q36,2007

 

Levers

1. Which one of the following pairs of machines consists of levers only?

A. Pliers and wedge.

B. Crowbar and nutcracker.

C. Screw and scissors.

D. Bottle opener and knife.
Q39,2004

2. Which one of the following statements is TRUE about some levers when in use?
A. In a crowbar, the load is between the effort and the fulcrum.
B. In a crowbar, the effort is between the load and the fulcrum.
C. In a wheelbarrow, the fulcrum is between the load and the effort.
D. In a spade, the effort is between the load

and the fulcrum. Q15, 2010

 

3. Which one of the following examples of levers has the position of effort between the positions of load and fulcrum when in use?
A. Spade.

B. Wheelbarrow.

C. Claw hammer.

D. Crow bar. Q41,2008

Friction force

1. In which of the following cases is friction both an advantage and a disadvantage?

A. Dragging a heavy box along the floor.

B. Moving parts of a machine.

C. Climbing up a hill.

D. Drawing water from a well using a rope.
Q47,2004

 

2.. The diagram below represents a tyre of a vehicle.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The purpose of treads in the vehicle tyre is to

A. make them last longer

B. increase grip on the road

C. reduce surface area

D. make them lighter.

Q47,2006

3. In which one of the following activities is friction

LEAST needed?

A. Writing.

B. Riding a bicycle.

C. Walking.

D. Using pulleys. Q13 ,2008

 

3. The diagram below represents a person pushing a heavy log of wood along a flat surface.
Which one of the following changes would make the person push the log more easily?

A. Smearing oil on the flat surface.

B. Wearing shoes with rough soles.

C. Smearing oil on the log of wood.

D. Placing rollers on the flat surface

 

 

 

 

Pulleys

1. Which one of the following machines is the effort equal to the load and the effort distance equal to the load distance?
A. Inclined plane.
B. Wheel and axle.
C. Lever.
D. Single fixed pulley. Q9,2004

 

 

 

 

 

To investigate the force required to lift the load

 

2. Which one of the following is a CORRECT statement about pulleys? Pulleys
A..Increase friction

B. Reduce the weight of the load

C. Change the direction of force

D. Increase speed Q26, 2003

 

single fixed pulley

A. changes direction of force

B. increases effort distance

C. reduces effort required

D. reduces load distance.
Q46,2006

 

4. The diagram below represents a set-up that is used to lift

a spring balance must be at

 

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. S. Q12,2007

 

5. Which one of the following statements about a single fixed pulley is TRUE? The effort
A. moves a shorter distance than the load

B. and the load move the same distance

C. moves twice the distance the load moves

D. required is half the load. Q14, 2008

6. The following are steps followed when

Q investigating the force required to lift a load using a

K.C.P.E 373

p
Effort

Load

fixed pulley but not in their correct order:

(i) Tie the load with a string

(ii) Pass the string with the load through the pulley on the support
(iii) Pull the spring balance and measure

(iv) Fix the pullev on the support

(v) Tie the spring balance at the end of string.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 374

The CORRECT order of steps to be followed is
A. (ii), (i), (iv), (v), (iii)

B. (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)

C. (v), (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

D. (iv), (i). (ii), (v), (iii). Q50,2010

 

 

Inclined planes

1. An inclined plane makes work easier by

A. changing direction of effort.

B. increasing effort distance.

C. decreasing load distance.

D. decreasing the load Q49,2004

 

2. Which one of the following pairs of machines belongs to the same group as a ladder?

A. Claw hammer and bottle opener.

B. Spade and fishing rod.

C. Staircase and a road winding uphill.

D. Handcart and wheelbarrow.
Q14,2007

 

person intends to push a drum full of oil along an

inclined plane on to a platform, Decreasing the slope of the inclined plane would

A. decrease effort applied

B. decrease effort distance

C. decrease load distance

D. not affect the effort applied Q19, 2008

4. Which one of the following groups of machines consists of inclined planes only?
A. Ladder, spade, crowbar.

B. Staircase, ladder, a road winding up a hill.

C. Spade, staircase, ladder.

D. A road winding up a hill, craw hammer, crowbar.

Q26,2010

5. Which one of the following is NOT an example of an inclined plane?
A. Crowbar B.Staircase C.Wedge
D.Screw Q28,2003

K.C.P.E REVISION 375

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E.

K.N.E.C

 

 

SOCIAL STUDIES

2000-2011

 

TOPICALLY ANALLYSED

SOCIAL STUDIES 2000
1. PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT

MAPWORK

Study the map of Bebe area and answer questions 1 to 7.
1. What is the direction of Kobo hill from Nama town?
A. North East.
B. South East.
C. NorthWest.
D. South West.
2. The physical feature which has been formed at the point where river Bebe enters lake Nama is called A a delta
B. an estuary C a tributary
K.C.P.E REVISION

D. a spring.
3. What evidence is there to show that most parts of Bebe area receive low rainfall?
A. Forest.
B. Scrub.
C. Swamps.
D. Hills.
4. According to the evidence in the map, the economic activities in Bebe area are fishing and
A. trading
B. cattle keeping
C. mining 381

D. saw-milling.
5. The headteacher of the school in Nama town wants to pass urgent information to the District Officer in Bebe town. The quickest means for passing the information would be by
A. sending a telegram
B. posting a letter
C. sending a messenger
D. making a telephone call.
6. Business people in Bebe area obtain their trading licences from the

A. chiefs camp
B. county council
C. post office
D. police post.
7. The length of the murram road from the shores of the lake to the junction in Nama town is
A. 13km
B. 16km
C. 15km
D. 10 km.
Q1-7 , 2003

SOCIAL STUDIES 2001

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

shop in Kaka town. The correct action for them to take would be to

Study the map of Kaka area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. What is the approximate length of the tarmac road

from the junction at Kaka town to the sawmill near river Kayo?
A. 6 km

B. 8 km

C. 10 km

D. 13 km.

 

2. Members of the public found a person breaking into a

A. beat up the person

B. take the person to the police post

C. take the person to the prison

D. run away for safety.

 

3. The highest point in Kaka area is likely to be around
A. Peya market

B. Peke market

C. Kaka town

D. Kuta market.

4. The climate of the area to the west of Kaka town can

6. What is the direction of Liba market from Peke

market?

be described as

A. hot and wet

B. hot and dry

C. cool and wet

D. cool and dry.

5. Which one of the following Local Authorities is in charge of Kaka town?
A. Municipal Council

B. County Council

C. City Council

A. North West

B. South West

C. South East

D. North East.

7. The two main economic activities carried out around Kuta market are

A. trading and mining

B. trading and cattle keeping

C. trading and manufacturing

D. trading and crop growing Q1-7 , 2001

D. Urban Council.

SOCIAL STUDIES 2002

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Sogo area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. Sogo municipality is administered by a

A. District Officer

B. Mayor

C. Chief

D. Police Officer.

2. The length of the marram road from Rata market to the

junction in Sogo town is approximately

A. 12 kms

B. 15 kms

C. 18 kms

D. 8 km.

3. The shaded area marked S is set aside for

A. industries

B. landless people

C. wild animals

D. trees.

4. The main economic activity carried out in Sogo area

is

A. fishing

B. mining

C. cattle-keeping

D. trading.

 

5. The general direction of flow of river Sogo is from

A. South West to North East

B. North West to South West

C. North East to South West

K.C.P.E REVISION 385

D. North to South.

 

6. What evidence in the map shows that Sogo area receives low rainfall?

A. Existence of settlements.

B. Presence of scrub vegetation.

C. Existence of a quarry.

D. Presence of hills.

7. A Police Officer in Boro market wants an urgent message to reach the Police Station at Sogo town. The quickest way of passing the message would be to

A. send a letter to Sogo Police Station

B. send a messenger to Sogo Police Station

C. drive to Sogo Police Station

D. make a telephone call to Sogo Police Station.

Q1-7 , 2002

 

SOCIAL STUDIES 2003
1. PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT

MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Tati area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. What evidence in the map shows that Tusa location has cool climate? The presence of
A. a tea plantation

B. an airstrip

C. rivers

D. a market

 

2. People living in Tati area would have their land disputes solved by the

A. Police Officer

B. District Officer

C. Forest Officer

D. Agricultural Officer

3. The two main economic activities carried out in Tati
area are

A. quarrying and cattle keeping

B. trading and transportation

C. trading and lumbering

D. crop growing and quarrying

4. The approximate length of River Saku from the source up to the point where it joins River Kathi is

 

 

 

A. 9 km

B. 10 km

C. 12 km

D. 2 km

 

5. What is the direction of the maize farm from the forest?
A. North East.

B. South West.

C. North.

D. South

6. Which one of the following pairs of goods is not likely to be sold in the markets shown on the map?
A. Clothes and processed food.

B. Hoes and pangas

C. Aeroplane tickets and motorcycles.

D. Fertilisers and seeds.

7. Which one of the four locations of Tali area is
most

densely settled?

A. Ruta.

B. Gako.

C. Kara.

D. Tusa.

Q1-7 , 2003

KCPE 2004 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Lofi area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The natural vegetation found in the south-western part of Lofi area is

A. scrub

B. forest

C. scattered trees

D. grass

 

2. Lofi town serves mainly as

A. an educational centre

B. a residential centre

C. an administrative centre

D. an industrial centre

 

3. What is the approximate length of the telephone line from the point where it crosses Lango Road to the south-eastern edge of the map?

A. 10 km

B. 7 km

C. 9 km

D. 12 km

4. What evidence on the map shows that there is likely to be security in Lofi town?

A. Post Office.

B. Police Station.

C. Permanent Buildings.

D. County Council Offices.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. According to the information on the map, three of the following statements are true. Which one is not?

A. The northern part of Lofi receives more rain than the southern part.

B. Cattle farming is one of the main agricultural activities in Lofi.

C. The people in Lofi have several sources of water.

D. A person travelling from Pewa to Pili has to pass through Lofi Town.

 

6. The main factor that may influence the setting up of a posho
mill at Pili market is the availability of

A. Water

B. Transport

C. Maize

D. Market

7. Which two religions are practised in Lofi area?

A. Christianity and Islam.

B. Islam and Buddhism.

C. Buddhism and Hinduism.

D. Hinduism and Christianity Q1-7, 2004

KCPE 2005 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Ama Area and answer questions 1 to 7.
1. The general direction of the murram pit from the Chief’s Camp is

A. North-East.

B. North-west

C. South-East

D. South-West.

 

2. The length of the tarmac road from the junction at Ama town to the tea factory is approximately.

C. Town Council.

D. Urban Council.

 

5. The main source of water for the residents of Ama town is

A. the swamp

B. the borehole

C. the pond

D. the river.

6. Three of the following are economic activities

practised in Ama Area. Which one is not?

A. Farming.

B. Fishing.

C. Mining.

D. Trading.

7. A person has set fire to the Rest House in Ama town. The most appropriate action that the owner should take

is to report the incident to

A. the District Officer

B. the Chief’s Camp

C. the health centre

D. the police station.

 

Q1-7, 2005
KCPE 2006 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Mula Area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The general direction of flow of river Mula is from

A. North to South-East.

B. North to South.

C. South-East to North.

D. South to North-East.

 

2. What is the approximate length in kilometres of the railway line shown on the map?

A. 14.5km.

B. 13.5 km.

C. 12.5 km.

D. 11.5 km.

 

3. The main economic activity carried out in Mula Area is

A. mining

B. farming

C. lumbering

D. trading.

 

4. Three of the following services are available in Mula town. Which one is not?

A. Health

B. Administration.

C. Recreation.

D. Security.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. The climate of the area between Muko and Wema markets is
likely to be

A. hot and dry

B. cool and dry

C. cool and wet

D. hot and wet.

 

6. The school in Mula town wishes to enlarge its compound. Which one of the following government offices should the

school approach for more land?

 

A. The District Education Office.

B. The Municipal Council Office.

C. The District Officer’s Office.

D. The Chiefs Office.

 

7. A trader in Wema market urgently wishes to order for goods from a supplier in Mula town. The

quickest means of placing the order would be

 

A. to post a letter to the supplier

B. to drive to Mula town

C. to make a telephone call to the supplier

D. to send a messenger to Mula town.

Q1-72006

 

2007 MAPWORK
D. 64 sq. kilometres.

3. Most of the settlements in Timo area are found

A. along the roads

B. near the quarry

C. near the cattle dip

D. along the river.

 

4. Which one of the following features would attract tourists in Zime Location?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6. Some cows have strayed into the maize plantation in Roti Location and destroyed the crop. The correct action for the owner of the plantation to take is to

A. poison the cows

B. arrest the herdsman

C. sell the cows in the nearby market

D. report the matter to the chief.

 

7. Which one of the following social services is not

available in Timo town?

A. Educational services.

B. Religious services.

C. Health services.

D. Recreational services. Q1-7, 2007

KCPE 2008 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of MINA area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The length of the railway from the level crossing to the edge of the map is approximately

A. 4km

B. 6 km

C. 9km

D. 13 km.

2. The general direction of flow of River Mina is

A. North-east to South-west

B. South-east to North-west

C. North to South

D. West to East.

 

3. Which one of the following types of soil is likely to be commonly found in Gola sub location?

A. Clay soil.

B. Sandy soil.

C. Alluvial soil.

D. Volcanic soil.

4. The main factor that may have influenced the setting up of a cattle ranch in Pone sub-location is the availability of

A. labour

B. space

C. transport

D. veterinary services.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. In Mina Area, there are permanent settlements in all the sub-locations except

A. Gola sub-location

B. Tosi sub-location

C. Pone sub-location

D. Waro sub-location.

 

6. What evidence in the map shows that Mina Town is an administrative centre? Presence of

A. a post office

B. a chief’s camp

C. a police post

D. a railway station

 

7. Which one of the following is the main source of revenue for Mina Urban Council?
A. Money paid by owners of businesses in the town.

B. Parking fees paid by vehicle owners.

C. Fees paid by people visiting the museum.

D. Fines paid by people who break the by-laws.

KCPE 2009 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of RAMALI area and answer questions 1 to 7.
1. The natural vegetation found around Kera market is

A. mangrove forest

B. scattered trees

C. papyrus

D. scrub

 

2. The approximate area of the cotton farm is

A. 4 km2

B. 8 km2

C. 12 km2

D. 14 km2.

 

3. River Ramali flows from

A. North-East to South-West

B. North-West to South-East

C. South-West to North-East

D. South-East to North-West

4. Which one of the following social services is provided at Pori market?

A . Health Services.

B. Religious Services.

C. Educational Services.

D. Postal Services.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. In which one of the following parts of Ramah area are most settlements found?

A. Along the Coast.

B. Along the tarmac road

C. Along the murram road.

D. Along the river.

6. The main economic activity carried out in Ramali area is

A. Salt mining

B. cattle keeping

C. fishing

D. trading.

7. The climate of Ramah area can be described as

A. hot and dry

B. hot and wet

C. cold and wet

D. cold and dry. Q1-7 ,2009

KCPE 2010 MAPWORK

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Study the map of Molu area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The land in Molu area slopes from

A. fast to West

B. South to North

C. North-West to South-East

D. North-East to South-West.

 

2. What is the approximate area of the irrigation scheme?

A. 10 square kilometers.

B. 16 square kilometers.

C. 18 square kilometers.

D. 20 square kilometers.

 

3. A trader at Tau market has ordered for maize flour from a wholesale shop in Molu town. The appropriate means of transport to use to deliver the flour would be by

A. road transport

B. railway transport

C. water transport

D. air transport.

4. Three of the following economic activities are carried out in Molu area except

A. fishing

B. farming

C. trading

D. mining.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

5. If the area under the Game Reserve was to be converted into a farm, which one of the following crops would be suitable to plant?

A. Coffee.

B. Cotton.

C Pyrelhrum.

D. Tea.

 

6. Which hone of the following statements correctly describes the distribution of settlements in Molu area?

A. The settlements are evenly spread.

B. There are few settlements in the irrigation scheme.

C. There are some settlements along River Molu.

D. Settlements are concentrated where there are towns.

 

7. Three of the following social services are available in Molu

Town. Which one is not?

A. Health Services.

B. Recreation services.
C. Educational Services
D Religious Services. Q1-7,2010

Position size and shape

1. Which one of the following groups of countries are found in Eastern Africa?
A. Kenya, Uganda, Angola.

B. Kenya, Rwanda, Egypt.

C. Kenya. Somalia, Namibia.

D. Kenya, Tanzania. Sudan. Q13,2001

2. Which one of the following statements is true
about

the Rift Valley province of Kenya?

A. Most of the inhabitants in the province are Cushites.
B. Its provincial headquarters is Eldoret town.

C. Most of the province is covered by forests.

D. It borders two neighbouring countries.
Q29,2001

3. Which one of the following statements is true about

the position of Kenya?

A. It is to the South of the Equator.

B. It is to the East of the Prime Meridian.

C. It is to the North of Uganda.

D. It is to the West of Ethiopia. Q22,2002

4. Which one of the following statements is true about the location of the Sahara desert? It is located to the

A. South of the Mediterranean Sea.

B. East of the Red Sea.

C. South of the Equator.

D. East of the Congo Basin. Q8, 2003 5Which one of the following statements explains why
there are few natural harbours along the coast of Africa?

A. The coastline is regular.

B. The land along the coast is flat.

C. There are mangrove forests along the coast.

D. The coastline is made up of soft rocks.

Q13, 2003

6. Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 40 to 44.

 

 

 

(i) The Island marked P is

A. Zanzibar

B. Lamu

C. Madagascar

D. Comoros

 

(ii) The country marked S is

A. Nigeria

B. Ghana

C. Benin

D. Cameroon

 

7. Which one of the following countries is correctly matched with its capital city’?
Country Capital city

D receive most of the rain from the North East trade winds. Q11,2000
2. . Below are statements describing a region in Africa (i) it has very hot days and cold nights
(ii) it has cloudless nights
(iii) it has scanty vegetation
The region described above is the A.. Kalahari
B. Congo Basin
C. lake Victoria region
D. Coastal Plains of West Africa. Q14,2000
3. The shaded area marked U has low population because it
A. is frequently invaded by pests
B. is flooded regularly by water from the Red Sea
C. is occupied by many wild animals
D. receives inadequate rainfall. Q35,2000
4. The diagram below represents the climate of a station in Eastern Africa. Use it to answer question 22.

 

A. Mali – Bamako

B. Ghana – Dakar

C. Senegal – Ndjamena

D. Chad – Accra

Q29, 2009

 

Climate
1. Which one of the following is true about the climate of the Kenya highlands? The highlands
A. have one rainy season
B. are hot throughout the year
C. experience cool temperatures

22. Which one of the following statements correctly

describes the climate of the station?

A. Rainfall is evenly distributed throughout the year.
B. It is hot throughout the year.

C. Rainfall is low when temperatures are high.

D. The wettest months are between November and March. Q22,2001

question 51.

 

 

 

 

 

5. Study the map of Kenya below and answer 26

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

26. The district marked Z is sparsely populated because
A. it is set aside for cattle ranching
B. it has many wild animals
C. it receives little rainfall
D. it has poor soils. Q26,2001
6. The diagram below shows a type of rainfall experienced in some parts of Kenya. Use it to answer

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

51. In which one of the following towns is the type of rainfall shown in the diagram commonly experienced?
A. Nairobi.

B. Nyeri.

C. Marsabit.

D. Kisumu. Q51,2001

7. The climate of the Congo Basin is generally

A. cold and wet throughout the year

B. cold and dry for most of the year

C. hot and dry for most of the year

D. hot and wet throughout the year.

K.C.P.E REVISION 410

Q56,2001
Use the map of Africa below to answer questions
8

8. The climate of the area marked Z is

A. hot and wet

B. wet and cold

C. cold and dry

D. hot and dry. Q41,2002

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

9. The diagram below shows an area where relief rainfall is experienced.

Which one of the areas marked A, B, C and D is in the rain shadow? Q20,2002
10. Which one of the following is a way of making arid
areas in Kenya productive?

A. By moving people from those areas.

B. By constructing roads in those areas.

C. By encouraging people to plant trees in those areas.

D. By encouraging people who live in those areas to practise shifting cultivation. Q45,2002
11. Which one of the following physical regions
of

Kenya is correctly matched with its climatic conditions?

K.C.P.E REVISION 411

Physical Region Climatic Condition

The diagram illustrates the formation of a

 

 

 

Q9, 2003

12. Meru town receives more rainfall than Nanyuki town because

A. Meru is on the windward side of Mount Kenya

B. Nanyuki is far from the Equator

C. Meru is near a forested area

D. Nanyuki is at a low altitude Q11,2004

 

 

 

14. The main economic activity of people living in cold deserts is
A. gathering

B. hunting

C. mining

D. Fishing Q56, 2004

15. The table below represents rainfall and temperature
figures for a station in Africa. Use it to answer question

Month Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec
Temp in 0C 28 28 28 27 27 26 26 27 27 27 27 28
Rainfall in mm 41 69 150 201 206 114 66 84 193 226 150 40

16. Below are some characteristics of a type of climate experienced in Africa.
(i) Day temperatures are very high.

(ii) The rainfall received in a year is between 250 mm and 450 mm.
(iii) Skies are cloudless during the night.

(iv) Most of the winds experienced are generally dry.

The type of climate described above is

A. Tropical Continental climate

B. Mediterranean climate

C. Semi-desert climate

D. Warm temperate climate. Q47, 2006

 

 

 

 

 

17. The graph below represents the climate of a town in

Africa.

Which one of the following statements correctly

describes the climate of the town?

A. There is rainfall throughout the year.

B. The town has one dry season.

C. Temperatures are high throughout the year.

D. The town has two wet seasons. Q14, 2007
18.. Nairobi is cooler than Mombasa because

A. Mombasa is far from the equator

B. Nairobi is far from the sea

C. Mombasa experiences sea breezes

D. Nairobi is higher above sea level.
Q10,2008 19.

 

 

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 413

 

 

 

. Which one of the following statements explains why the shaded area marked J is densely populated?

 

The ocean current that influences the climate of the area marked Q is
A. Canary

B. Guinea

C. Mozambique

D. Benguela. Q24,2008

20. Below are characteristics of a type of climate in Africa

(i) Rain occurs mainly in the afternoon.

(ii) Annual range of temperature is low.

(iii) Rainfall is high throughout the year.

(iv) Temperatures are high throughout the year.

A. The area has sufficient land for settlement

B. The area receives high rainfall which encourages farming.
C. The area has volcanic soils suitable for growing a variety of crops.
D. The area experiences cool climate suitable for settlement.
Q18,2009

 

22. Use the diagram below to answer questions 22 & 23

 

 

 

 

 

 

21.

The climate described above is

A. Desert climate.

B. Equatorial climate.

C. Tropical climate.

D. Mediterranean climate. Q53,2008

Which of the following characteristics are true about the winds marked X?
A. They are cool and moist.

B. They are warm and dry.

C. They are cool and dry.

D. They are warm and moist.
Q13,2010

23. Which one of the following towns in Kenya

K.C.P.E REVISION 414

experiences the effects of winds similar to the ones marked X?

A. Nanyuki.

B. Nakuru.

C. Thika.

D. Eldoret. Q14,2010

 

Weather prediction and instruments

1. Three of the following instruments used for
measuring weather conditions are commonly found in

a school weather station. Which one is not?

A. Thermometer.

B. Rain gauge.

C. Barometer.

D. Wind vane.
Q10,2003

2. The best time to thresh millet is when the weather is

A. cool and calm

B. cloudy and rainy

C. sunny and windy

D. cool and rainy
18,2003

3. The diagram below represents an instrument that is used to measure an element of weather.

 

Which one of the following elements of weather is measured using the instrument shown in the diagram?

A. Air pressure.

B. Temperature.

C. Wind direction.

D. Rainfall. Q14,2005

4. The diagram below shows an instrument used for recording an element of weather.

 

 

 

 

 

The element of weather recorded using the instrument shown above is
A. rainfall

B. temperature

C. pressure

D. wind direction.

415

Q47,2006

5. Below are some ways used for predicting the coming of a rainy season.
(i) Observing the clouds.

(ii) Using air balloons.

(iii) Measuring the humidity of the air.

(iv) Observing the shape of the moon.

 

Which combination of the ways listed above consists of traditional methods of predicting weather?

A. (i) and (iv)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv). Q25,2009

6. In traditional African societies, the croaking of frogs was associated with

A. the coming of dry seasons

B. the coming of good harvest

C. the coming of rains

D. the coming of strong winds.
Q20,2010

7. The diagram below represents an instrument that is used to measure an element of weather.

The instrument is used to measure

A. direction of the wind

B. amount of rainfall

C. atmospheric pressure

D. temperature. Q25,2002

8. Which one of the following weather recording instruments is correctly matched with the element of weather it measures?
Instrument Element of weather
A. Thermometer Humidity
B. Rain gauge Temperature
C. Hygrometer Rainfall
D. Barometer Air pressure Q26,2000

10. Traditional African Societies predicted the coming of rains by

A. reading information received from balloons released into the air
B. bserving types and movements of clouds
C. listening to information about weather over the radio
D. reading weather charts showing the movement ofwinds. Q42,2000
Mountains

1. . Below are statements about a mountain in Africa
(i) it was formed as a result of volcanic activity
(ii) it is located near the boundary of two countries
(iii) it is covered by snow at the peak. The mountain described above is A.Elgon
B.Drakensberg C.Kilimanjaro
D.Atlas. Q41,2000
2. The diagram below represents a volcanic mountain

 

The physical feature marked Z in the above diagram is
A. lava
B. a crater
C. conelet
D. a fault. Q55,2000
3. The diagram below represents a landscape. Use it to answer question 39.

 

 

 

 

 

The landscape above was formed as a result of

A. deposition

B. folding

C. erosion

D. faulting. Q39,2001

4. Three of the following statements are true about Mount Kilimanjaro. Which one is not?
A. It is the highest mountain in Africa.

B. It is covered with snow at the top.

C. It is the source of River Tana.

D. It is located in Tanzania. Q55,2001

Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 5

 

5. The relief feature marked Q is the

A. Adamawa Highlands

B. Atlas Mountains

C. Ahaggar Plateau

D. Cameroun Mountains. Q43,2002

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

6. Most mountains in Africa were formed as a result of

A. erosion

B. volcanicity

C. folding

D. Faulting Q12,2003

7. The floor of the Rift Valley in Kenya receives little rainfall because it
A. lies in between the eastern and western highlands
B. is located far from the Indian Ocean

C. is located near the Equator

D. has many salty lakes.
Q142003

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The feature marked R is

A. Mount Kenya

B. Mount Elgon

C. Mount Marsabit

D. Mount Meru
Q32,2003

8. Mountains were useful to communities in traditional African societies because they
A. provided boundaries between communities

B. provided good areas for settlement

C. were used as places of worship

D. were used as administrative headquarters
Q40,200 3
9. Which one of the following mountains was formed as a result of faulting?

A. Mount Kenya.

B. Mount Kilimanjaro.

C. Atlas Mountains.

D. Ruwenzori Mountains.
Q14,2004

10. The diagram below represents a type of mountain. Use it to answer question 10.

 

 

 

 

11. The type of mountain represented in the diagram was formed as a result of

A. faulting

B. folding

C. volcanicity

D. erosion. Q10,2006

12. The Atlas mountains were formed as a result of

A. faulting

B. erosion

C. folding

D. volcanicity. Q56,2007

13. Which one of the following groups of mountains in Africa are block mountains?

A. Atlas, Ruwenzori and Pare.

B. Ruwenzori, Drakensburg and Usambara.

C. Atlas, Pare and Drakensburg.

D. Pare, Usambara and Ruwenzori.
Q43,2008

14. Which one of the following mountains in Africa was formed as a result of faulting
A. Mt Kenya.

B. Mt Kilimanjaro.

C. The Atlas Mountains.

D. The Ruwenzori Mountains.
Q37,2010

 

Latitudes, longtudes and time

1. The latitude marked B is

A. Greenwich Meridian

B. Tropic of Cancer

C. The Equator

D. Tropic of Capricorn. Q44,2002 2.What is the time in Kigali on longitude 30° E when
it is 10:00 am in Accra on longitude 0°?

A. 8:00 am

B. 6:00 am

C. 2:00 am

D. 12:00 noon
Q15,2003

3. In which two of the following months is the sun overhead at the Equator?
A. December and May.

B. June and November.

C. March and September.

D. June and December. Q13,2004

overhead at the Equator?

A. March and September

B. June and September.

C. March and December,

D. June and December Q13,2009

 

Lakes

1. Most lakes in the Rift Valley of Kenya are salty because they
A. experience high rate of evaporation

B. are narrow

The position of Khartoum is C, are found in basins formed through faulting

A. latitude 16°N and longitude 33°E

B. latitude I6°N and longitude 33⁰ W

C. latitude 10°N and longitude 33°E

D. latitude 20°N and longitude 33°W.

 

 

 

Q26,2004

D. have few water plants.
Q49,2000

2. Below are statements about a lake in Kenya.

(i) It is a fresh water lake.

(ii) It is a source of a river.

5. What is the time in Alexandria on longitude 30°E when it is 9.00 am in Oran on longitude 0°?
A. 7.00 am.

B. 9.00 pm.

C. 11.00 am.

D. 1.00 pm. Q22,2007

6. To make a complete rotation on its axis, the earth takes

(iii) It is a major source of fish. The lake described above is
A. Lake Victoria

B. Lake Magadi

C. Lake Turkana

D. Lake Naivasha. Q21,2002

3. The true statement about the lake marked N is that it is

The lake marked L is

A. Lake Kyoga

B. Lake Albert

C. Lake Tanganyika

D. Lake Malawi. Q24.2006 5.The diagram below represents a type of a lake.

 

A. a fresh water lake

B. found in the Great Rift Valley

C. a home for flamingoes

D. the source of River Nyando Q30,2003

 

 

4.

The type of lake shown is

A. a man-made lake

B. an ox-bow lake

C. a crater lake

D. an oasis. Q51,2006

6. Water pollution in Lake Victoria is caused mainly

by

A. plants growing in the water

B. waste from factories in the area

C. people bathing in the lake

 

D. waste from nearby homes. Q57,2001

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

1. The vegetation of the shaded area marked R consists of
A. tall evergreen trees and little grass

B. scattered trees and tall grass

C. short trees and short grass

D. thorny trees and short grass. Q42,2002 2.Equatorial forests are evergreen because
A. they are found in areas with few pests that eat their leaves
B. they grow in lowland areas within the tropics

C. they grow in areas which receive heavy rainfall

D. they are found in flat areas with fertile soils

Q35,2003

The major crop grown in the region marked Q is

A. groundnuts

B. maize

C. tea

D. citrus fruits Q41,2004 4.Below are some characteristics of a type of
vegetation found in Africa.

(i) The trees are medium height,

(ii) The trees shed their leaves during the dry seasons.
(iii) Some trees are umbrella-shaped.

(iv) The vegetation is a mixture of grass and trees.
422

This vegetation is most likely to be found in

A. steep mountain slopes

B. equatorial coast lands

C. the Sahara desert

D. the Nyika plateau Q13,2006

 

5. Your class went on a study tour of an area whose

vegetation had the following characteristics:

(i) Scattered umbrella-shaped trees.

(ii) Large areas covered with grass.

(iii) Some thorny bushes and shrubs.

The vegetation found in the area that your class visited is

A Equatorial forest

B. Desert vegetation

C. Savanna vegetation

D. Coniferous forest. Q18,2007 6.Which one of the following is the main effect of
destruction of forests on the slopes of Mt. Kenya?

A. Reduced supply of firewood.

B. Reduced volume of water in rivers.

C. Shortage of timber for building.

D. Shortage of herbal medicine.
Q21,2008

 

7.Which group of characteristics shown below describes the equatorial vegetation?
A B

Very tall trees Very tall trees Trees with straight Trees with straight

C D Q20,2009

 

8. Your class went on a study tour of an area whose vegetation had the following characteristics:
(i) Scattered umbrella-shaped trees.

(ii) Large areas covered with grass.

(iii) Some thorny bushes and shrubs.

The vegetation found in the area that your class visited is

A Equatorial forest

B. Desert vegetation

C. Savanna vegetation

D. Coniferous forest. Q18, 2008

 

Rivers
1. Study the map of Eastern Africa below and answer questions 1
KT.Cin.Py.tEhRoErnVyISbIOusNhes

Plants with thick barks Short grass

Health moorland 423

 

31. Which one of the following explains why navigation along the river marked P is difficult?
A. The amount of water in the river changes from season to season.
B. The river has crocodiles and hippopotamuses.
C. The river has many bends.
D. The river has waterfalls and floating vegetation.
Q31,2000

2. The rivers marked S and T are

(i) It passes through a desert.

(ii) Its source is a freshwater lake.

(iii) It has a delta.

(iv) It provides water for irrigation The river described above is?
A. River Volta.

B. River Tana.

C. River Nile.

D. River Limpopo. Q36,2001

4. The river marked Q is

A. Cunene

B. Orange

C. Limpopo

D. Zambezi. Q28,2005

5. River Nile and River Niger have a common characteristic. It is that both rivers
A. originate from the same highlands

B. end in the Mediterranean Sea

C are navigable throughout the course

D. have a delta at the mouth.
Q40,2010

6. Which one of the following statements is true about the river marked L?

K.C.P.E REVISION 424

 

 

 

 

 

 

A. It originates from Mau Hills.

B. It crosses five provinces.

C. It supplies water for irrigation.

D. It is seasonal. Q20,2009

7. Below are statements about a river in Africa.

(i) It is navigable for some distance.

(ii) It enters the Atlantic Ocean.

(iii) It has many tributaries.

(iv) It forms a boundary between two countries. The river described above is
A. River Zambezi

B. River Nile

C. River Senegal

D. River Congo Q12,2003

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

425

Islands

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

C. It is found to the east of Somalia.
D. It lies to the west of the prime meridian.
Q40,2007

1. The Island marked P is

A. Zanzibar

B. Lamu

C. Madagascar

D. Comoros Q40,2004

Countries of Africa

1. The main method used by the Africans in Zimbabwe to attain their independence was
A. boycotting work

B. seeking support from neighbours

C. fighting guerilla warfare

D. negotiating with the colonialists.

2. Which one of the following islands is the largest?
A. Zanzibar.
B. Madagascar.
C. Mauritius.
D. Seychelles. Q13,2000

Rift valley

Q26, 2007

Effects of physical features

1. The diagram below represents a physical feature.
Use it to answer the question that follows.

1. Which one of the following is the least important benefit of Mt. Kenya?
A. It provides stones for building houses.

B. Its slopes have fertile soils for farming.

C. It helps in the formation of relief rainfall.

D. It is a tourist attraction. Q11, 2006

 

Compass

1. Which one of the following statements is true about the geographical position of Kenya?

A. It borders the Atlantic ocean.

B. It lies south of Sudan.

Fault Fault

 

The feature marked X is

A. A block mountain

K.C.P.E REVISION 426

B. A rift valley

C. An escarpment

D. A crater Q10, 2009

 

Rotation and Revolution

5. Countries in North Africa experience winter season

during the months of

A. December to February

B. March to May

C. June to August

 

1. Which one of the following planets is farthest from the Earth?
A. Mercury.
B. Mars.
C. Jupiter.

D. September to November.

Q39, 2010

D. Pluto. Q58,2000

2. In which one of the following months is the sun

overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn?

A. March.

B. December.

C. June.

D. September. Q47,2001

3. Day and Night are caused by

A. revolution of the earth

B. movement of the moon

C. movement of the sun

D. rotation of the earth Q58,2002

4. Different parts of the earth experience day and night at different times. This is caused by

A. the movement of the moon around the arth

B. the revolution of the earth around the sun

C. the movement of the sun from east to west

D. The rotation of the earth on its axis.

Q19, 2010

PEOPLE AND POPURATION

Language groups
1. Which one of the following Kenyan communities belong to the same language group?

A. Abagusii, Iteso, Akamba.
B. Somali, Aembu, Turkana.
C. Samburu, Pokomo, Tugen.

D. Abaluyia, Ameru, Taita Q9,2000

2. The Eastern Africa communities in the boxes below share a common origin.

 

Which one of the following communities is represented by letter Y in the box above?
A. Chagga.
B. Acholi.
C. Amhara.
D. Somali. Q17,2000
3. Which one of the following groups of Kenyan communities share a common origin?

K.C.P.E REVISION 427

The true statement about the communities listed above is that they
A. were the last communities to settle in Eastern Africa
B. migrated into Eastern Africa from the

A. B.

 

 

 

 

C. D. Q8,2001

4. Below are four communities found in Kenya.

(i) Mijikenda

(ii) Abakuria

(iii) Abagusii

(iv) Akamba

 

Which one of the following statements is true
about the communities listed above?

A. They belong to the same language group.

B. They occupy the highland region in Kenya.

C. They traded with the Arabs.

D. They were ruled by Kings. Q8,2002 5.Below are three communities in Eastern Africa
(i) Boran

(ii) Somali

(iii) Rendille

North East

C. migrated from the Central African region

D. first settled around Lake Turkana. Q16, 2003

6. Which one of the following groups of communities migrated and settled in West Africa during the pre-colonial period?

 

 

 

A. B. C. D.

Q39, 2003

7. Which one of the following communities in Kenya make up the Plain Nilotes?
A. B. C. D.

 

 

K.C.P.E REVISION 428

Q8, 2004

8. Below are three communities in Kenya:

(i) Ameru

(ii) Wadawida

(iii) Abagusii

 

Which one of the following statements is true about

these communities?

A. They are mainly pastoralists.

B. They traded with the Abaluhya.

C. They occupy the highland regions in Kenya.

D. They were ruled by kings Q39, 2004

E.

9. The Tigre and Amhara Communities live mainly in

A. Tanzania

B. Somalia

C. Uganda

D. Ethiopia. Q37, 2006

1. The main economic activities of the Mijikenda during the pre-colonial period were farming and

A. basket weaving

B. trading

C. iron smelting

D. hunting. Q10,2000

2. . Which of the following ways of interaction was most common between the Akamba and the Agikuyu during the pre-colonial period?
A. Intermarrying.
B. Raiding.
C. Trading.
D. Sporting. Q15,2000
3. Which one of the following Kenyan communities is correctly matched with its main economic activity during the colonial period?
Community Economic activity

A. Rendille trading

B. Ameru livestock keeping

C. Nandi hunting

D. Abagusii crop growing

17,2001

4. Which one of the following groups of commodities

B. Development of Swahili culture.

C. Construction of the Uganda railway.

D. Introduction of the Kipande system.
Q10,2002

6. During the pre-colonial period trade between the Agikuyu and their neighbours was promoted mainly by

A. demand for goods

B. support from community leaders

C. friendly relations with their neighbours

D. existence of reliable means of transport.

Q17,2002

7. Three of the following are results of the settlement of
the Masai into Kenya, Which one is not?

A. They displaced some communities they found.

B. They traded with other communities.

C. They copied some customs from the other

communities.

D. They taught other communities bark cloth making. Q17, 2003
8. During the pre-colonial period, African communities protected their homes against enemies mainly by

A. building stone walls around the homesteads

B. positioning armed warriors around the homesteads

C. using thorn fences around the homesteads

D. digging trenches around the homesteads

Q36, 2004

A. Formation of Kingdoms in the area.

B. Displacement of the Dorobo from the area.

C. Introduction of cash crop farming in the area.

D. Outbreak of diseases in the area. Q15, 2005

Population growth and distribution

1. A common characteristic about the population of India and Kenya is that in both countries the
A. birth rate is low
B. majority of the people are young
C. death rate is low
D. majority of the people are old. Q56,2000
2. The Age-Sex pyramid below describes the population of a country in Eastern Africa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following statements is true according to the information in the diagram above?
A. There are more males than females at all

9.Which one of the following was a result of the settlement of the Bantu in the area around Mount

ages.

B. The percentage of male and female at

Kenya during the pre-colonial period?

ages 46-60 is equal.

C. There are more male children being born than females.
D. A high percentage of the population is made up of young people Q50,2002
3. Registration of deaths of people in Kenya is important because
A. it enables the government to know the most

common diseases that kill people

B. it enables the government to have records
for

future planning

C. it enables doctors to know the medicines that are effective in controlling diseases
D. it enables people to know the hospitals that provide good services. Q59,2002
4. The population of Kenya is increasing at a high rate because
A. some men marry several wives

B. there is improved medical care

C. there is enough food in the country

D. having many children earns one respect

Q20, 2003

5. The main reason why people in Kenya are counted every ten years is to

A. find out the number of children who have been born
B. know the number of people living in different parts of the country

C. find out the number of people who have died

D. get information required for planning for the needs of the people
Q51, 2004

6. Which one of the following statements is true about the population of both Kenya and India?

A. It is mainly made up of old people.

B. The rate of population increase is low.

C. Most people live in towns.

D. It is mainly made up of young people.

Q35, 2005

7. The highland areas of Kenya have high population density because

A. there is enough pasture for livestock

B. there is enough space for settlement

C. the climate is warm

D. the soils are fertile. Q40, 2005

5. The Eastern Bantu dispersed from Shungwaya during the pre-colonial period mainly because
A. the area became dry

B. they fought among themselves

C. there was an outbreak of diseases

D. they were attacked by the Galla.
Q20,2008

 

8. Which one of the following statements explains why

there are few roads in the northern parts of Kenya?

A. The area has sparse population.

B. The area is generally rocky.

C. The area has many hills.

D. The area has many wild animals. Q48, 2006

9. Which one of the following factors has led to a decline in the rate of population growth in Kenya?

age

0-14 years.

A. Improved medical facilities.

B. Improved methods of food production.

C. Increase in the incidents of early marriages.
D. Increase in awareness of advantages of fewer children. Q50,
2006
10. The Age-sex pyramid below represents the population of Germany.
AGE

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

4.0 3.5 3.0 2.5 2.0 1.5 1.0 0.5 0 0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following statements is true
about the population according to the pyramid?

A. Most of the population is over 55 years.

B. There are more males than females at all ages.

C. There are more female than male children at

D. The number of males and females who are over 85 years are equal.
Q39, 2007

 

11. The main problem resulting from rapid population growth in the rural areas in Kenya is that it has led to
A. shortage of land for agriculture

B. reduction of areas under forest

C. increased soil erosion

D. inadequate water for domestic use. Q57, 2007
12. Which one of the following would be the best way of controlling rapid population growth in towns in Kenya?

A. By improving social services in rural areas.

B. By creating employment opportunities in rural areas.

C. By setting up family planning clinics in towns.

D. By advising the youth in towns to avoid marrying early.
Q45, 2008

13. In Kenya, a national population census is carried out after a period of

A. 10 years

B. 8 years

C. 5 years

D. 1 year Q42, 2009

 

Migration

K.C.P.E REVISION 432

1. The people who migrated into Kenya from Southern Ethiopia using the route marked R are
A. Nilotes
B. Bantu
C. Cushites
D. Semites. Q32,2000
2. The main cause of rural-rural migration in Kenya is

A. lack of water

B. search for land for settlement

C. search for employment

D. outbreak of diseases. Q20,2001

3. Arabs came to the Kenyan coast before 1500 AD

mainly to

A. spread Islam

B. escape religious persecution

C. trade with the local people

D. explore the area. Q24,2001

4. Three of the following were results of the migration of the Cushites into Eastern Africa. Which one was not?
A. Movement of some communities out of the area.
B. Introduction of plantation farming in the area.

C. Intermarriage with other communities in the area.

D. Development of trade with the communities in the area. Q18,2002
5. One of the ways through which the Government
of Kenya is attempting to reduce rural-urban migration is by
A. discouraging people from moving to towns

B. improving education and health services in rural areas

C. encouraging the establishment of industries in the rural areas
D. restricting the establishment of new towns

in rural areas
Q27,2003

6. From which direction did the Bantu enter into Eastern Africa?
A. The South.

B. The North.

C. The East

D. The West. Q24, 2004

 

7. Which one of the following gives the correct order in which the ancestors of the Luo came to Kenya?

A. Joka-Jok, Joka-Omolo, Joka-Owiny.

B. Joka-Omolo, Joka-Jok, Joka-Owiny.

C. Joka-Owiny, Joka-Omolo, Joka-Jok.

D. Joka-Jok, Joka-Owiny, Joka-Omolo Q45, 2004.

8. Which one of the following is the main reason why the
Somali migrated into Kenya during the pre-colonial period?
A. For adventure.

B. To look for pasture for their animals.

C. To escape from external attacks.

D. To avoid family quarrels. Q9, 2005

9. Which one of the following Kenyan communities is
correctly matched with its place of origin?
Community Place of origin

K.C.P.E REVISION 433

A. Luo – Southern Sudan.
B. Marakwet – Ethiopian Highlands.
C. Rendille – Taita Hills.
D. Wadawida – Mount Elgon. Q21, 2005
10. Which one of the following would be the best way of

controlling rural-urban migration in Kenya?

A. Encouraging setting up of industries in the rural areas.
B. Advising the unemployed people to stay in the rural areas.
C. Providing free food to people in the rural areas

D. Providing free primary education in the rural areas. Q39, 2005

 

Which one of the following routes did the River- Lake Nilotes follow when they were migrating into Kenya during the pre-colonial period?
A. Route 1.

B. Route 2.

C. Route 3.

D. Route 4. Q22, 2006

11. Which one of the following factors least explains

why the Bantu migrated from their original homeland into Eastern Africa?

A. Spirit of adventure.

B. Search for fertile land.

C. Population pressure.

D. Attacks by other communities. Q8, 2007

12.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Which one of the following language groups migrated into Kenya along the route marked H?

A. Bantus.

B. Cushites.

C. River-Lake Nilotes.

K.C.P.E REVISION 434

D. Plains Nilotes Q17, 2009 13.The original homeland of the Bantu was
A. The horn of Africa

B. Bah-el-Ghazal

C The Congo Basin

D. Arabian Peninsula Q8, 2010

14.

A. Homo Erectus —> Homo Habilis —> Homo Sapiens.
B. Homo Sapiens —> Homo Habilis —> Homo Erectus.

C. Homo Habilis —> Homo Erectus —» Homo Sapiens.
D. Homo Habilis —» Homo Sapiens —» Homo Erectus.

Q9, 2007

2. The pre-historic site marked R is

A. Koobi Fora

B. Olorgesailie

C. Fort Ternan

D. Kariandusi.
Q31, 2010

 

 

 

 

 

The language group that entered Kenya from the direction the arrow marked S during the pre-colonial period was
A. Plains Nilotes

B. Cushitic speakers

C. River Lake Nilotes

D. Bantu speakers. Q32, 2010

 

Evolution of man
1.Which one of the following gives the correct order of the evolution of Early Man?

SOCIAL AND CULTURAL
ACTIVITIES
Cultural aspects
1. Below are some cultural practices of a community in Kenya.
(i) the people decorate themselves with red ochre
(ii) their main food consists of animal products
(iii) women build huts for the family The community whose culture practices are described above is the
A. Ameru
B. Abakuria

K.C.P.E REVISION 435

C. Giriama
D. Maasai. Q18,2000
2. Which one of the following was the main duty of diviners in Africa before the coming of Europeans?
A. Settling disputes among members of the community.

B. Allocating land to members of the community.

C. Leading the warriors to fight their enemies.

D. Telling the community what would happen in future.

Q22,2000

3. Initiations were important in traditional African societies mainly because they
A. marked the passage from one stage of life to another
B. brought people together to share ideas
C. gave people a chance to show their dancingskills
D. enabled the youth to choose their marriage partners.

C. Playing hide and seek.

D. Playing football. Q22, 2003

 

7. Which one of the following is not a reason why songs and stories were used to teach the youth in traditional African Communities?
A. To entertain them.

B. To help them remember what they had learnt.

C. To bring them together.

D. To make them develop interest in learning.

Q59, 2003

8. Which one of the following stages shows the correct order of becoming an elder in traditional African communities?

Q23,2000

4. In traditional African societies festivals and ceremonies were held mainly for people to
A. meet their friends

B. eat special food

C. mark major events

D. display their talents. Q9,2002

5. For a Masai youth to become a warrior he has to
A. undergo circumcision

B. be baptised

C. be married

D. own property Q21, 2003 6.Which one of the following is not a recreational
activity in traditional African communities?

A. Dancing.

B. Wrestling.

A. Initiation —> marriage —> warrior ——> elder.

B. Warrior —> marriage —>initiation —> elder.

C. Warrior —> initiation —> marriage —> elder.

D. Initiation —> warrior —> marriage —> elder.

Q18, 2004

 

9. Among the Agikuyu, people who were initiated together formed

A. a sub-tribe

B. a clan

C. a generation
D. an age-group Q33, 2004 10.The reason why naming ceremonies were held
among the traditional African communities was that they

A. provided an opportunity for clan members to eat together

B. provided an opportunity for people to dance

C. provided an opportunity for people to meet their friends

D. provided an opportunity for the baby to be received into the clan
Q37, 2004

11. During the pre-colonial period, the youth learnt to be good citizens mainly by

A. taking part in community affairs.

B. listening to stories.

C. imitating elders.

D. watching traditional ceremonies. Q49, 2004

12. In traditional African societies, the people who could foretell future events were called

A. witch-doctors

B. diviners

C. rainmakers

D. Sorcerers Q50,
2004

13. Traditional healers wore special charms in order to

A. display their skills to the customers

B. make themselves look beautiful

C. preserve rare items of the community.

D. protect themselves from danger. Q10, 2005

10. Which one of the following occasions brought people of different ages together in most African communities
during the pre-colonial period?

A. Burial ceremonies.

B. Cleansing ceremonies.

C. Marriage ceremonies.

D. Oathing ceremonies. Q9, 2005
14. In which one of the following ways is a person likely

to be infected with HIV and AIDS?

 

A. By sharing injection needles with an infected person.
B. By shaking hands with an infected person.

C. By sharing clothes with an infected person.

D. By playing games with an infected person.

Q14, 2006

15. Which one of the following statements is true
about

clans in traditional African societies?

A. They were headed by wealthy people.

B. They were formed by people from the same age group.
C. They were made up of people with a common ancestor.
D. They were made up of warriors.

Q27,
2006

 

16.. The main reason for teaching moral laws to the youth is to
A. encourage them to support one another

B. guide them on how to choose marriage partners
C. enable them to learn their traditions

D. enable them to acquire responsible behaviour. about

 

2007

Q11,

education in traditional African societies?

A. Learners read books about great people in the

17. The main reason why wife inheritance should be discouraged in Kenya is because it leads to
A. spread of HIV and AIDS

B. increased population

C. immoral behaviour

D. misuse of family resources. Q49, 2007

18. In traditional African societies, the youth were taught moral laws mainly to

A. promote unity among themselves

B. show kindness to other people

C. grow into respectable adults
D. become courageous Q8, 2009 19.Nzau, a primary school pupil assisted an elderly
lady to cross a busy road. The behaviour by Nzau should be encouraged in the society because it

A. promotes courage among children

B. shows that children love old people

C. makes old people live longer

D. is a sign of respect for old people. Q55, 2010

 

The school
1. The most effective way of ensuring discipline in a school is by
A. making rules to govern the school
B. promoting communication among people in the school
C. punishing those who break school rules
D. giving the pupils freedom to do what they wish.
Q47,2000

2. Which one of the following statements is true

society.

B. Learners were given written tests regularly.

C. Learning took place throughout a person’s life.

D. Learning took place in classrooms.

Q19,2001

3. Traditional education was important mainly
because

it enabled the youth to

A. interact with adult members of the society

B. learn about great people in the society

C. prepare for adult roles in the society

D. learn the secrets of the society Q19,2002

4. The best way to prepare pupils to be useful members of society is by
A. punishing them when they make mistakes

B. encouraging them to read many books

C. encouraging them to participate in community activities
D. involving them in sports and games.

Q51,2002

5. The best way to make pupils obey school rules is by
A. involving them in making school rules.

B. asking the parents to talk to pupils who break school rules.
C. encouraging pupils to talk to each other freely.

K.C.P.E REVISION 438

D. putting up the rules on the school noticeboard.

Q60, 2003

6. The main function of a school in Kenya is to

A. pass knowledge and skills to pupils

B. guide and counsel pupils

C. enable pupils to mix freely
D. prepare pupils for adulthood. Q36, 2004 7.The role of the headteacher in the school
committee is to

A. provide security during meetings of the committee

B. chair the meetings of the committee

C. write minutes when the committee is meeting

D. decide who should be a committee member

Q46, 2004

8. Three of the following are ways through which the

youth were taught in traditional Kenyan societies. Which one is not?
A. Reading and writing.

B. Singing and dancing.

C. Telling of stories and riddles.

D. Reciting poems and proverbs. Q25, 2006

9. One of the roles of prefects in school management is to

A. prepare the school timetable

B. keep pupils progress records

C. take part in school committee meetings
D. take care of school property. Q15, 2007 10.You have noticed that your friend Kefa has
started

smoking. What would be the best action for you
to

take in order to help him stop the behaviour?

A. Take away the cigarettes from him.

B. Talk to him about its effects.

C. Advise him to see a doctor.

D. Avoid his company. Q23 , 2007

Standard VIII prefect finds her two classmates

quarrelling in class. The right action for the prefect to take is to

A. ignore the pupils

B. punish the pupils

C. send the pupils out of class

D. discuss the issue with the pupils. Q30, 2008

12. The best way to ensure that the school is kept clean all the time is by

A. organizing weekly cleaning days

B. educating pupils on the importance of cleanliness.
C. providing dust bins for throwing rubbish.

D. Employing workers to collect waste papers.

 

Q21, 2009

13. Aku, your classmate, has been performing poorly in class because she learnt that her parents are HIV positive. Which one of the following is the best action for you to take to help Aku?

A. Advice her to seek counseling services.

B. Encourage her to work hard

C. Advise her to drop out of school.

D. Encourage her to pray about the problem.

Q30, 2009

 

14. Which one of the following is a role of the School

Management Committee in public primary schools in
Kenya?

A. To distribute text books to pupils.

B. To punish pupils tor missing school.

C. To supervise teachers.
D. To build classrooms Q49, 2009 15.The best way through which prefects can help the
other pupils to become responsible citizens is by

A. setting examples of good behaviour for others to copy

B. punishing those who misbehave in school

C. telling pupils to behave well

D. giving presents to those who behave well

Q57, 2009

16. Below are duties of a school administrator.

(i) To monitor teacher’s class attendance.

(ii) To write minutes during staff meetings.

(iii) To maintain discipline in the school. The duties described above are performed by
A. the school prefect

B. the headteacher

C. the deputy headteacher

D. the school committee chairperson.

Q11,2010

Family
1. In traditional Kenyan society polygamy was accepted because
A. it was a way of controlling population growth

B. it was a way of reducing immorality

C. it was a way of controlling infectious diseases

D. it was a sign of prestige Q12,2001

2. Drug abuse is discouraged mainly because it

A. leads to ill-health

B. promotes illegal trade

C. pollutes the environment

D. encourages corruption. Q23,2001

3. Which one of the following groups represents a single

parent family?

A. Father, daughter, son.

B. Father, mother, son.

C. Father, nephew, daughter.

D. Father, daughter, niece. Q8, 2005

4. Children are expected to take part in family duties because
A. it prepares them for future roles

B. it promotes their physical development

C. it is a sign of respect for their parents

D. it helps them develop courage Q30, 2006
3. Tamaru is a sister to Mbeya. Tamaru has a son called Ndavi while Mbeya has a daughter called Maria. To Ndavi, Maria is a

A. niece

B. cousin

C. nephew

D. sister. Q16, 2007

5. In traditional African communities, the basic unit of social organization was
A. the family

B. the clan

C. the age-group
D. the warriors. Q36, 2008 5.Which one of the following groups of people belong
to a nuclear family?

A. Father, daughter, son.

B. Mother, son. Grandfather

C. Father, son, uncle.

D. Grandmother, father, daughter. Q15, 2009

6. In Kenya, civil marriages are conducted by

A. A magistrate

B. A councilor

C. A clan elder

D. A religious leader Q54, 2009
7. Which one of the following marriages is presided over by the District Commissioner’?
A. Civil marriage.

B. Christian marriage.

C. Customary marriage.
D. Islamic marriage. Q34, 2010 8.Which one of the following groups of people
represent single parent family?

A. Mother, daughter, son.

B. Father, mother, son.

C. Mother, son, nephew.

D. Father, daughter, niece. Q52, 2010

 

Traditional education
1. Below are ways of acquiring skills of treating the sick:

(i) By getting information from books.

(ii) By observing how sick people are treated.

(iii) By learning how to make herbal medicine.

(iv) By practicing how to inject sick people.

(v) By working with experienced healers.

 

Which one of the following combinations is made up of ways that traditional healers acquired their skills.

A. (i) (ii) and (iii)

B. (ii) (iii) and (v)

C. (ii) (iv) and (v)

D. (i) (iii) and (iv). Q40, 2008

 

2. Which one of the following was the main reason why proverbs were used in teaching the youth in traditional African communities?
A. To guide the youth on how to behave.

B. To keep the youth busy during their free time.

C. To help the youth develop skills in speaking.

D. To teach the youth about past events.

Q46,2008

3. Three of the following skills were taught through apprenticeship in African traditional societies. Which one was not?

A Harvesting of honey.

B. Treating the sick.

C. Collecting firewood.

D. Hunting for wild animals. Q38, 2010

 

Clan system.

1. Which one of the following groups of people share a
common ancestor in traditional Agikuyu community?

A. Njau, his brothers, his sisters.

B. Njau, his mother, his father.

C. Njau, his wife, his brothers.

D. Njau, his uncle, his mother.
Q18,2001

2. In traditional African societies festivals and ceremonies were held mainly for people to
A. meet their friends

B. eat special food

C. mark major events

D. display their talents. Q9,2002

 

3. Which one of the following was a function of clan elders in traditional African Communities?

A. To provide food to needy families.

B. To treat the sick members of the community.

C. To educate the youth about their culture.
D. To protect the land against invaders.

Q53, 2010

 

RESOURCES AND ECONOMIC CTIVITIES

Development projects

1. . Which one of the following groups of rivers in Africa is used for the production of hydro-electric power?

Q19,2000

1. The most common problem facing dams in Africa is
A. frequent flooding

B. floating vegetation

C. collection of silt in the dams

D. concentration of settlements around the dams

Q11, 2003

2. The main reason for establishing the Volta River project in Ghana was to
A. produce hydro-electric power

B. improve transport

C. provide water for irrigation

D. promote fishing Q22, 2004 3.Which one of the following dams in Africa is

correctly matched with the river on which it is located?
Dam River

A. Kariba dam River Tana

B. Akosombo dam River Zambezi

C. Aswan High dam River Nile

D. Masinga dam River Volta Q55, 2006

4.

6. The multi-purpose project found in the place marked

L is the

A. Aswan High Dam

B. Owen falls Dam

C. Akosombo Dam

D. Karibama D. Q21 2007

7. Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 7

 

 

 

The dam marked P was built mainly to

A. provide water for irrigation

B. create a lake for fishing

C. provide hydro-electric power

D. control floods. Q23, 2008

5. Which one of the following dams in Africa is correctly matched with the river on which it is located?
Dam River

A. Kariba – Zambezi

B. Kindaruma – Nile
C. Aswan – Volta
D. Akosombo – Tana Q18, 2010

 

40. The development project marked A is

A. High Aswan Dam

B. River Tana Project

C. Volta River Scheme

D. Kerio Valley Project. Q402002

Irrigation farming

K.C.P.E REVISION 443

1. Which one of the following statements is true of rice growing in Kenya? Rice is
A. mainly grown under irrigation.
B. harvested by the use of machines.
C. mainly grown for export.
D. grown by large scale farmers. Q12,2000
2. Which one of the following is the main crop grown in the Ahero irrigation scheme?
A. Tomatoes.

B. Cotton.

C. Rice.

D. Onions. Q43,2000

3. Which one of the following statements is true about growing of bananas in Uganda? Bananas
A. are grown for subsistence.
B. were introduced by the British.
C. are mainly grown in the northern part of the country.
D. are mainly grown for export. Q25,2001
4. Mwea-Tebere and Ahero irrigation schemes have one factor in common. It is that they
A. were set up during the colonial days

B. are supplied with water from lakes

C. are used for rice growing

D. were used to settle freedom fighters.
Q12,2002

5. Which one of the following rivers in Kenya is correctly matched with the irrigation scheme to which it supplies water?
River Irrigation Scheme

A. River Nyamindi Mwea

B. River Turkwel Ahero
C. River Nyando Perkerra

D. River Yala Bura

Q23, 2003

6. Three of the following are benefits resulting from setting up of Perkerra Irrigation Scheme. Which one is not?

A. It has led to establishment of industries.

B. It has provided employment opportunities.

C. It has increased food production.

D. It has been used to settle the landless. Q50, 2008.
7. Three of the following are problems experienced by farmers in Mwea-Tebere irrigation Scheme. Which one is not?

A. Silting of canals.

B. Water-borne diseases.

C. Destruction of crops by birds.

D. Shortage of rice seeds. Q28, 2009

 

Livestock farming
1. The government of Kenya is promoting modern methods of livestock farming among pastoral communities mainly to
A. ensure proper use of available pastures
B. improve the standard of living of the people
C. increase the supply of meat in the country
D. improve the quality of livestock breeds.
Q21,2000

 

2. The main problem facing beef farming in Kenya is

A. inadequate market

B. scarcity of water

C. pests and diseases

D. attacks by wild animals. Q15,2001

K.C.P.E REVISION 444

3. Which one of the following factors explains why the Turkana practise nomadic pastoralism?
A. They own large numbers of animals.

B. They live in an area that receives little rainfall.

C. They have a liking for adventure.

D. They lack land for growing crops. Q37,2001

4. Which one of the following reasons best explains why the Fulani of Nigeria practise nomadic

pastoralism?

A. Availability of large tracts of land.

B. Search for pasture for their animals.

C. Need to control animal diseases.

D. Search for markets for their animals.

Q38,2002

5. Which one of the following is the main reason why the Fulani of Northern Nigeria keep large herds of cattle?
A. Large herds provide security against loss of cattle through disease.
B. The Fulani have extensive grazing lands in Northern Nigeria.
C. Cattle are the community’s source of food.

D. Cattle are regarded as a sign of wealth.

Q26, 2003

6. The central part of Tanzania is unsuitable for dairy farming mainly because the area

A. receives inadequate rainfall

B. is sparsely populated

C. has infertile soils

D. is infested with tsetse flies Q23, 2004

7. In which one of the following ways have the Maasai pastoralists benefited from government support?
A. They are given money to buy animal feeds during the dry season
B. Towns have been built in the grazing areas to provide market.
C. Wild animals have been removed to create more

land for grazing.

D. Bore holes have been drilled to provide water in the grazing areas. Q33, 2006

OO 30⁰ E
ORAN
ALEXANDRIA

 

 

 

OO 30⁰ E

 

 

 

 

 

 

The main economic activity carried out in the shaded area marked K is

A mining

K.C.P.E REVISION 445

B. tourism

C. crop growing

D. nomadic pastoralism. Q20, 2007

Crop farming
1. One of the problems facing coffee farming in Tanzania is
A. shortage of seedlings
B. lack of markets
C. frequent flooding
D. attacks by pests and diseases. Q16,2000
2. Which one of the following statements is true about growing of bananas in Uganda? Bananas
A. are grown for subsistence.
B. were introduced by the British.
C. are mainly grown in the northern part of the country.
D. are mainly grown for export.
Q25,2000
3. Which one of the following is the main problem facing sugarcane farmers in Western Kenya?
A. Lack of land to expand their farms.

B. Lack of labour during harvesting.

C. Delayed payment for sugarcane delivered to factories.
D. Lack of storage facilities for sugarcane in the factories. Q16,2001
4. Which one of the following statements explains why farmers in the Kenya highlands grow most of the tea in small scale farms?
A. There is a scarcity of land to establish large farms.
B. It is expensive to establish large farms.

C. There are too few labourers to work on large

farms.

D. There are too few factories to process tea from large farms. Q50,2001
5. Which one of the following statement is true about coffee growing in Kenya and Uganda? In both countries coffee is
A grown mainly through irrigation

B. grown mainly in lowland areas

C. grown mainly for export Q27,2002

6. Three of the following factors promote the growing of maize in Tran-Nzoia district. Which one does not?
A. Adequate means of transport.

B. Availability of water for irrigation.

C. Availability of market.

D. Adequate supply of labour. Q52,2002 7.Bananas are sometimes grown in the same farms
with coffee in Uganda because

A. there is little land for growing the crops separately
B. they provide shade for coffee trees

C. they make the soils more fertile

D. they reduce the pests that attack coffee trees

Q33,2003

8. Which one of the following statements is true about bananas in Somalia? They are

A. grown on small scale

B. an important export crop

C. the staple food

D. an indigenous crop Q21,2004

K.C.P.E REVISION 446

9. Flowers are exported by air mainly because they?

A. are light in weight

B. get spoilt easily

C. are in high demand

D. fetch high prices Q38,2004

 

10. The main problem that has contributed to the decline in coffee production in Kenya is

A. low payments to farmers

B. lack of domestic market

C. competition from other coffee growing countries
D. scarcity of land for growing the crop.

Q13,2005

11. The horticultural crops that are grown in Kenya
mainly for export are

A. bananas and oranges

B. flowers and French beans

C. mangoes and avocados
D. onions and pineapples. Q32,2005 12.Which one of the following statements is true
about

farming in Kenya during the pre-colonial period?

A. Fertilizer was used in the growing of crops.

B. Most crops were grown for sale.

C. Communities practised shifting cultivation.

A. It is cheap to produce.

B. It is exported to earn foreign exchange.

C. It is grown to feed animals.

D. It is the staple food for the people.
Q48,2005 14.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The cash crop grown in the shaded area marked K is

15. Which one of the following statements is true
about the areas where wheat is grown?

A. The areas have clay soils.

B. The areas have low altitude.

C. The areas experience high temperatures.

D. The areas receive moderate rainfall.
Q44,2006

16. Which one of the following methods of irrigation is used in the Ahero Irrigation Scheme?
A. Canal irrigation.

B. Overhead irrigation.

C. Sprinkler irrigation.

D. Trickle irrigation. Q13,2007.

17. Which one of the following groups consists of crops

grown in Kenya during the pre-colonial period?

A. Cassava and sorghum.

B. Rice and sisal.

C. Wheat and coffee.

D. Tea and sugarcane Q32,2007

18. The following are conditions necessary for growing a cash crop in Africa.
(i) High temperatures throughout the year.

(ii) Deep well-drained fertile soils.

(iii) Shelter from strong winds.

(iv) High rainfall throughout the year.

The crop that requires the conditions listed above is

A. cocoa

B. sisal

C. pyrethrum

D. tea. Q35,2007

19. The following are farming practices in Africa.

(i) Using the land communally

(ii) Use of simple tools

(iii) Ploughing along the contours

(iv) Leaving the land fallow

(v) Growing crops on large farms

Which one of the following combination of farming practices applies to shifting cultivation?

 

 

Q45,2007

20. Which one of the following statements is true
about

horticultural farming in both Kenya and the Netherlands? In both countries
A. crops are grown on plantations

B. farmers grow crops in green houses

C. crops are grown on reclaimed land

D. most of the work is done using machines. B

21. Which one of the following groups of crops in Kenya is grown mainly in plantations?

 

B

C D

K.C.P.E REVISION 448

C. Safe

D. Comfortable.
Q41,2009

 

Q38’2008

 

22. Most of the horticultural products from Kenya are exported by
A. air

B. water

C. road
D. railway. Q57,2008 23.Horticultural farming in Kenya is different from
that in the Netherlands in that

A. horticultural cooperatives are better organized in Kenya than in the Netherlands

B. Kenya has a wider local market than the Netherlands
C. Farming is less mechanized in Kenya than in the Netherlands
D. there are more horticultural farms in Kenya than in the Netherlands.

Q29,2009

24. Which one of the following cash crops is commonly grown in Zanzibar?

A. Cocoa.

B. Sugarcane.

C. Cloves.

D. Pyrethrum.
Q39,2009

25. Fresh flowers from Kenya are exported to Europe by air because air transport is

A. fast

B. Cheap
K.C.P.E REVISION

26.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The main economic activity carried out in the shaded area marked Q is

A. mining

C. bee keeping

B. pastoralism

D. crop farming Q30,2010

 

Trade

1. Countries of Eastern Africa have formed regional co-operations in order to
449

A. have one leader for the region

B. promote intermarriages in the region

C. have the same education system in the region

D. promote trade in the region.
Q36,2002
2. Which one of the following factors has greatly undermined trade between the countries of
Eastern

Africa?

A. Inadequate transport links.

B. Lack of a common language.

C. Use of different currencies.

D. Political instability in some countries.
Q53,2003

3. Which one of the following countries is a member of the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA)?
A. Chad.

B. Ethiopia.

C. Libya.

D. Nigeria. Q55,2005

3. Which one of the following was the reason why COMESA was established?
A. To introduce a common currency for the member states.
B. To expand the border towns in the region.

C. To promote the use of a common language in the region.

4. Which one of the following is the main benefit the West African countries have gained as members of the Economic Community for West African States (ECOWAS)?

A. Expansion of trade.

B. Increased production of cash crops.

C. Promotion of free movement of people in the region.
D. Expansion of manufacturing industries in the region.

Q17,2007

 

5. The main problem limiting trade among African countries is that
A. they use different national languages

B. they have poor transport links

C. they use different currencies

D. they produce similar goods.
Q42,2008

6. Thika has grown to an important town mainly
because

A . it has tourist attractions

B. it has many industries

C. it has high population

D. it has a railway line. Q48,2008

 

7. Which one of the following communities is correctly matched with the commodity they traded in during the pre-colonial period?

D. To remove import duties on trade goods from member states.
Q58,2006.
K.C.P.E REVISION 450

Community Items of trade

A. Maasai Grains

B. Akamba Wood carvings

C. AgikuyuSoap stones

D. Abagusii Red ochre Q16,2009

 

8. The main reason why Common Market For Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA) was established was to

A. promote trade among member states

B. fight against the spread HIV and AIDS

C facilitate free movement of people within member states
D. expand transport network in the region

Q26,2010

 

 

 

 

CO-OPERATIVES
1. Which one of the following is the main function of agricultural co-operative societies in Kenya?
A. Marketing of produce for the members

B. Buying farm implements for the members.

C. Assisting the members to learn good farming methods.
D. Building schools for the members’ children.

Q14,2001

2. Which one of the following is the main problem facing co-operatives in Kenya?
A. Many people are unwilling to join the cooperatives.
B. A large number of members are illiterate.

C. Members contribute little amounts of money to
\

the co-operatives.

D. Money contributed by members is sometimes misused. Q54,2002
3. The main problem facing agricultural cooperative societies in Kenya is
A. lack of transport

B. shortage of land

C. pests and diseases

D. mismanagement of resources Q23,2003 2.Which one of the following is a function of Kenya
Cooperative Creameries (KCC)?

A. Training veterinary officers.

B. Marketing milk for farmers.

C. Treating dairy animals.

D. Licensing farmers to sell milk. Q25,2004 4.Which one of the following is a benefit of agricultural
cooperative societies to the members in Kenya?

A. Providing labour in the farms.

B. Licensing farmers to start businesses.

C. Marketing the farm produce.

D. Settling the farmers who are landless.
Q49,2005

5. The main problem experienced by agricultural cooperative societies in Kenya is
A. delays in the delivery of farm inputs

B. inadequate transport facilities

C. illiteracy among the members

D. mismanagement of funds. Q49,2006

K.C.P.E REVISION 451

Q60,2002

6. Which one of the following statements is true
about the areas where wheat is grown?

A. The areas have clay soils.

B. The areas have low altitude.

C. The areas experience high temperatures.

D. The areas receive moderate rainfall.
Q44,2007

 

Transport

1. Which one of the following is the safest point for a pedestrian to cross a busy road?
A. At a junction.

B. At a bend.

C. At a footbridge.

D. At a roundabout. Q52,2001

2. The most commonly used means of transport between Eastern African countries is

A. air transport

B. road transport

C. water transport

D. railway transport. Q30,2002

3. The main reasons why there are many accidents on Kenyan roads is because
A. there are many vehicles in the country

B. the roads are used by many pedestrians

C. many roads in the country are narrow

D. many drivers ignore traffic rules.

4. The green sign of a person on the traffic control lights indicate that
A. vehicles should continue moving

B. vehicles can get ready to move

C. pedestrians can cross the road

D. pedestrians should wait before crossing the road

Q24,2003

5. The best way of reducing road accidents in Kenya is by
A. building more roads to lessen traffic congestion

B. educating people continuously on how to use roads
C. punishing those who break traffic rules

D. putting up more road signs. Q30,2005

6. In traditional African societies, goods were transported using
A. vehicles

B. trains

C. animals

D. bicycles. Q49,2010

7. The main problem facing road transport in Kenya is that

A. the roads are costly to construct

B. vehicles cause air pollution

C. some roads are impassable during the wet season

D. vehicles are driven carelessly.
Q59,2010

8. Which one of the following was the main reason

why the British built the Uganda railway?

A. To stop slave trade in the interior.

B. To transport soldiers to the interior.

C. To transport goods to the coast.

D. To promote the spread of Christianity.
Q37,2008

 

Tourism and wildlife
1. What tourist attraction is common to the shaded areas
marked P and Q?

A. Sporting facilities

B. Wildlife

C. Historical sites

D. Mountains Q29,2003

 

2. The main tourist attraction along the coast of Kenya is
A. wildlife
B. sandy beaches
C. mangrove forests
D. peoples culture. Q24,2000
3. The main benefit of tourism to Kenya is that it

A. promotes good relations between Kenya other countries
B. earns foreign exchange for the country

C. encourages the improvement of roads

D. promotes the building of hotels. Q50,2000

4. The main tourist attraction in East African countries is
A. culture of the people

B. pre-historic sites

C. various types of wildlife

D. various types of landscape Q35,2002 5.The main benefit of tourism to Kenya is that it

A. encourages the development of industries in
the

country

B. earns the country foreign exchange

C. encourages conservation of the environment

D. provides employment opportunities.
Q47,2005

6.Which one of the following statements is true about Tourist attraction Country
Lake Bogoria? A. Pyramids – Egypt
A. It has hot springs. B. Gedi Ruins – South Africa
B. It is a source of minerals. C. Victoria Falls – Kenya
C. It provides water for irrigation. D. Sandy beaches – Zimbabwe
D. It is used for fishing. Q38,2006 Q48,2009

8. Which one of the following is the best way through which the Government of Kenya can attract more tourists into the country?
A. By training more tour guides.

B. By advertising the country abroad.

C. By establishing more game parks.

D. By passing strict laws against poaching.
Q52,2006

11. Tourism is important to Kenya mainly because it

A. earns foreign exchange for the country

B. promotes international understanding

C. leads to expansion of transport network

D. encourages protection of wildlife.
Q44,2010

 

 

2. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the country in Africa where it is mined for export?
Mineral Country

A. Gold South Africa

B. Oil Tanzania

C. Copper Nigeria

D. Diamonds Uganda Q38,2001

3. One of the uses of Soda ash is to make
A. cement

B. washing soap

C. plastics

D. roofing materials. Q14,2002

4. Below are statements about a mineral mined in Tanzania
(i) It is used to make sharp instruments.

(ii) It is used to make ornaments.

(iii) it is one of the country’s major exports. The mineral described above is
A. copper

B. limestone

C. diatomite

D. diamond. Q28,2002

5. The mineral obtained from the area marked W is used for the manufacture of
A. cement

B. glass

C. soap

D. Salt Q31,2003

6. The mineral mined at the place marked T is

A. fluorspar

B. oil

C. gold

D. Copper Q44,2004

7. Below are statements about a mineral in Kenya

(i) it is white in appearance.

(ii) it is mined on the floor of the rift valley

(iii) it is used as a water filter.

The mineral described above is

A. diatomite

B. fluorspar

C. limestone

D. soda ash Q50,2005

8. Below are some minerals mined in Eastern Africa.

(i) Diatomite.

(ii) Copper.

(iii) Fluorspar.

(iv) Diamonds.

Which combination of the minerals listed above is mined in Kenya?
A. (i) and (ii).

B. (ii) and (iii).

C. (i) and (iii).

D. (ii) and (iv).

9. Below are some minerals mined in Eastern Africa.

(i) Diatomite.

(ii) Copper.

(iii) Fluorspar.

K.C.P.E REVISION 455

(iv) Diamonds.

Which combination of the minerals listed above is mined in Kenya?
A. (i) and (ii).

B. (ii) and (iii).

C. (i) and (iii).

D. (ii) and (iv). Q31,2006

9. Which one of the following methods is used to mine limestone in Kenya?
A. Deep shaft method.

B. Open cast method.

C. Panning.

D. Dredging. Q31,2007

10. Which one of the following minerals is used for making glass?
A. Limestone.

B. Soda ash.

C. Fluorspar.

D. Diatomite.
Q9,2008

11. The main contribution of petroleum to the economy of Nigeria is that it has led to

A. the development of the transport network.

B. an increase in energy supply

C. the creation of job opportunities

D. an increase in foreign exchange.
Q24,2009

12. In Kenya, fluorspar is mined through

A. deep shaft method

B. open cast method

C. panning

D. drilling. Q56,2008

13. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the method used to mine it? Mineral Mining method

A. Soda Ash – Drilling

B. Diatomite – Opencast

C. Petroleum – Panning

D. Gold – Dredging
Q45,2010

 

Soil
1. The first step to take in controlling gully erosion is to
A. build gabions
B. plant cover crops
C. construct terraces
D. plant trees. Q57,2000 2.The best way to control gulley erosion is by
A. constructing gabbions

B. planting cover crops

C. strip cultivation

D. constructing cut-off drains
Q37,2003

 

3. Which one of the following is an economic use of the soil?
A. Making bricks.

B. Administering oaths.

C. Decorating the body.

K.C.P.E REVISION 456

D. Making traditional medicine.
Q27,2004

 

4. Below are some characteristics of a type of soil:

(i) It contains little humus.

(ii) It allows water to pass through easily.

(iii) Its particles do not hold together when wet. The type of soil described above is
A. black cotton soil

B. alluvial soil

C. sandy soil

D. loamy soil. Q20,2006

 

5. Which one of the following types of soil erosion is

correctly matched with the area where it commonly

occurs?

Type of erosion Area

A. Gully erosion – steep slopes

B. Rill erosion – flat ground

C. Sheet erosion – hill tops

D. Splash erosion – gentle slopes
Q54,2007

 

6. The best way to control sheet erosion is by

A. planting cover crop

B. building gabions

C. contour farming

D. crop rotation.
Q28,2008

7. The diagram below represents a method used to

conserve

 

 

 

 

The method represented in the diagram above is

A. contour ploughing

B. strip cropping

C. gabion building

D. Terracing Q31,2009

8. Three of the following are soil conservation measures. Which one is not?
A. Mono-cropping.

B. Crop rotation.

C. Contour ploughing

D. Building of gabions.
Q48,2010

 

Industries

1. Which one of the following is an example of a service industry?
A. Bicycle repair.

B. Fruit canning.

C. Bread making.

K.C.P.E REVISION 457

D. Milk processing. Q34,2003 2.Which one of the following economic activities in
Kenya is a major foreign exchange earner?

A. Sugarcane growing.

B. Maize farming.

C. Dairy farming.

D. Horticulture
Q35,2003

B. enables people to promote traditional crafts

C. encourages people to move to urban centres

D. encourages people to keep the environment clean. Q53,2002
7.Which one of the following groups of industries consists of service industries?

3. The location of Bamburi cement factory in A B Mombasa was influenced mainly by

A. presence of limestone in the area

B. existence of market in the area C D

C. availability of electricity in the area

D. nearness to the port of Mombasa Q44,2000

4. The main factor that determines the establishment of

a textile manufacturing industry is

A. availability of land

B. availability of workers

C. adequate market

D. adequate transport. Q45,2001

5. Which one of the following is an example of a traditional industry?
A. Paper making

B. Glass making

C. Tyre making

D. Wood-carving Q11,2002

6. The Jua Kali industry in Kenya is important because it
A. enables people to be self-reliant

Q11’2005

8. The government encourages the development of
Jua Kali industries in Kenya mainly to

A. make cheap goods from local raw materials

B. promote trade with other countries

C. enable people to acquire different skills

D. provide an opportunity for people to become self-employed. Q16,2005
9. Below are some factors which determine the location of industries:

(i) Nearness to raw materials.

(ii) Nearness to markets.

(iii) Availability of capital.

K.C.P.E REVISION 458

(iv) Availability of transport.

(v) Availability of land.
Which one of the following combinations of the factors above best determines the location of a

B. They promoted the development of roads.

C. They provided goods for export.

D. They encouraged the establishment of museums.

bakery?

A. (ii) (iii) (iv).

B. (i) (ii) (v).

C. (i) (iii) (iv).

D. (iii) (iv) (v). Q60,2006

10. The main factor that influences the location of a furniture making industry is

A. availability of transport

B. availability of power

C. availability of raw materials
D. availability of market. Q52,2007 11.Maina wishes to set up a Jua Kali industry. Which
one of the following is the main factor that would influence the choice of location?

A. Availability of capital.

B. Availability of labour.

C. Availability of power.

D. Availability of market. Q35,2008 12.Which one of the following is a service industry?
A. Banking.

B. Mining.

Q9,2009

14Which one of the following groups of industries consists of service industries.

 

A B

 

 

 

C D Q52,2009

Fishing

1. Fishing along the coast of Kenya has not been fully developed mainly due to
A. low demand for sea fish in the country
B. inadequate funds to buy modern fishing equipment
C. lack of adequate fishing skills
D. competition from foreign fishermen. Q27,2000
2. Three of the following are reasons why fish farms are

C. Brewing

D. Carving. Q54,2008

13. which one of the following statements is true about traditional industries during the pre- colonial period?
A. They provided the necessary household items.

started. Which one is not?

A. To make harvesting of fish easy.

B. To enable farmers to keep the type of fish they require.
C. To provide people with jobs.

D. To provide clean water for drinking.

K.C.P.E REVISION 459

Q43,2001

3. Three of the following methods of preserving fish were used in Kenya during the pre-colonial period. Which one was not?
A. Freezing.

B. Sun-drying.

C. Smoking.

D. Salting. Q16,2002

Below is a diagram showing a method of fishing. Use it to answer question 1.

Q56,2006

6. The diagram below shows a method of fishing.

 

 

 

 

 

The fishing method represented in the diagram is

A. purse-seining

B. drifting

C. gill net

D. trawling. Q25,2007

7. The diagram below represents a method of fishing.

The fishing method shown in the diagram is

A. basket method

B. purse seining

C. net drifting

D. trawling method.
Q12,2008

8. One of the problems affecting fishing in Lake Victoria is that

A. parts of the lake arc rocky

B. parts of the lake have water hyacinth

C. the lake level keeps changing

D. Sand from rivers is deposited in the lake.
Q45,2009

9. The cheapest method of preserving fish is by

A. freezing

B. salting

C. sun drying

D. deep frying. Q36,2005

 

Urbanisation.
1. Below are descriptions of a town in Kenya,
(i) it is a mining town
(ii) it is a railway terminus
(iii) it receives little rainfall The town described above is’
A. Nanyuki
B. Magadi
C. Athi River
D. Kitale. Q20,2000
2. Which one of the following is the main function of Thika town? It is
A. an administrative centre

B. an agricultural centre

C. a market centre

D. an industrial centre. Q21,2001

3. Nakuru town started as

A. an industrial centre

B. a communication centre

C. an agricultural centre

D. an educational centre. Q15,2002 4.Which one of the following towns in Kenya is an
important mining centre?

A. Eldoret.

B. Magadi.

C. Voi.

D. Nyeri. Q28,2004

5. Below are factors that influenced the origin of a town in Kenya.
(i) Availability of clean water

(ii) Central position along the Uganda railway

(iii) Existence of flat land

 

The town whose origin was influenced by the factors

listed above is

A. Nairobi

B. Kisumu

C. Eldoret

D. Thika. 4,2005

6. The statements below describe a town in Kenya.

(i) It began as a fish landing point.

(ii) A railway line reached the town in 1901.

(iii) It is an administrative centre.

(iv) It is a lake port.

The town described above is

A. Mombasa

B. Malindi

C. Kisumu

D. Nakuru.

7. Use the map of Eastern Africa below to answer questions 21

 

The town marked J is

A. Dodoma

B. Kigoma

C. Arusha

D. Dar-es-Salaam.
Q21,2006

8. The main problem resulting from rapid population growth in the rural areas in Kenya is that it has led to

A. shortage of land for agriculture

B. reduction of areas under forest

C. increased soil erosion

D. inadequate water for domestic use.
Q58,2007

 

Forestry

1. The most serious threat facing equitorial rain forest is
A. destruction of trees by fire
B. frequent cutting down of trees
C. destruction of trees by animals
D. unreliable rainfall.
Q48,2000
2. The government is conserving forests in the shaded areas marked W mainly to
A. protect indigenous species of trees

B. protect trees for their beauty

C. protect soil from erosion

D. protect habitat for wildlife.
Q28,2001

3 Which one of the following activities threatens the existence of natural forests in Kenya?
A. Settling of people around the forests.

B. Destruction of trees by wild animals.

C. Collection of herbs for making medicine.

D. Cutting trees for telephone poles.

Q46,2001

4. Which one of the following regions in Kenya has the largest area under forest?
A. the central highlands

B. the coastal plain

C. the lake region

D. the Nyika plateau Q13,2002

5. Conservation of forests in Kenya is important

mainly because it

A. makes the environment beautiful

B. provides sources of herbal medicine

C. protects water catchment areas

D. provides raw material for the paper industry
Q57,2002

6. Which one of the following statements is not true about planted forests in Kenya?
A. They provide raw materials for making paper.

B. They have straight trunks.

C. They are widespread in dry areas.

D. They provide timber. Q35,2004

 

7. In which one of the following areas in Kenya are mangrove forests found?
A. At the foot of mountains.

B. In the coastal lowlands.

C. In the Lake Victoria basin.

D. On the floor of the rift valley.
Q17,2005

 

8. Which one of the following statements is true about trees in the planted forests in Kenya?

A. The trees have thorns.

B. Most of the trees have climbers.

C. Most of the trees mature fast.

D. The trees are of different types.
Q42,2005

9. The main reason why the government encourages afforestation in Kenya is to
A. create employment opportunities

B. protect the sources of rivers

C. increase the supply of firewood

D. create more areas for wildlife to live in.
Q35,2006

10. Which two types of forests are found in the area marked T?

A. Temperate and Bamboo forests.

B. Tropical and Mangrove forests.

C. Temperate and Mangrove forests.

D. Tropical and Bamboo forests.
Q33,2010

11. In Kenya, forest areas are protected against destruction mainly because they
A. make the scenery beautiful

B. conserve water sources

C. are sources of timber

D. provide herbal medicine.
Q50,2010

 

Communication

1. Which one of the following means of communication

was not used in traditional African societies?

(i) Newspapers

(ii) Telephone

(iii) Television

(iv) Radio

Which one of the following combination is made up of electronic means of communication?
A. (i) (ii) and (iv)

B. (ii) (iii) and (iv)

C. (i)(iii) and (iv)
D. (i) (ii) and (iii). Q15,2008 3.The most widespread means of passing information
in the rural areas of Africa is by

A. radio

B. telegraph

C. television

D. newspapers. Q43,2007.

 

Road safety

 

1. Road safety education is taught in primary schools in Kenya in order to

 

Q11,2001

1. Which one of the following means of communication was used to pass information to distant places in traditional African societies?
A. Beating a drum.

B. Sending smoke signals.

C. Blowing a horn.
D. Sending a messenger. Q29,2004 2.Below are some modern means of communication:

A. prepare pupils to become traffic police officers

B. create awareness on careful use of roads

C. make learning more interesting

D. teach pupils how to drive vehicles
Q42,2007

2. Matatu accidents in Kenya have become fewer in recent years. This is mainly because of the introduction of

A. safety belts

B. speed governors

 

C. uniform for drivers
D. rules against overloading. Q28,2006 3.Which one of the following places is the safest for
pupils to cross the road?

A. Where there are bumps.

B. Where there are traffic light.

C. At a roundabout.

D. Where there is a road junction.
Q51,2009

 

4. The diagram below represents a road sign.

 

 

 

 

 

The road sign indicates that

A. pedestrians must stop

B. there is a roundabout ahead

C. there is danger ahead

D. motorists should avoid overtaking.
Q41,2010

FIRST AID
1. A vehicle has overturned near your school and the

driver has a deep cut on the leg. Which one of the

following would be the immediate action for you to take to help the driver?

A. Remove the driver from the scene.

B. Report the accident to the head teacher.

C. Remove the valuables of the driver for safe keeping.
D. Tie the drivers wound to control bleeding.
Q5,12008

 

pastoralism

1. Which one of the following statements is true of both the Tswana and the Fulani?
A. They earn their living through fishing.

B. They live in Southern Africa.

C. They belong to the same language group.

D. They keep large herds of livestock.
Q51,2008

2. Three of the following statements are true about the Tswana pastoralists. Which one is not?

A. They live in the wetter parts of their country

B. They keep large herd of livestock.

C. They use some of their animals to pay bride price.
D. They grow food crops around their temporary shelters

Q35,2009

3. Which one of the following statements is true
about pastoral farming among the Fulani?

A. They keep cattle mainly for sale.

B. They mainly keep dairy cattle.

C. They grow fodder crops for their cattle.

D. They migrate with their cattle according to seasons.

 

POLITICAL DEVELOPMENT
AND SYSTEMS
Traditional forms of government

B. the Baganda.

C. the Chagga.

D. the Somali. Q10,2001 4.Which one of the following is the main factor that
led to the growth of the kingdom of Old Ghana?

A. The kingdom acquired wealth from the Trans Saharan trade.
B. The kingdom was surrounded by weak neighbours.
C. The kingdom made iron weapons.

D. The kingdom had adequate food supply.
Q38,2003

 

5.Which one of the following statements is true about

1. Which one of the following communities in Eastern Africa was ruled by Kings during the pre-colonial period?
A. TheBaganda
B. The Wanyamwezi
C. TheNuer
D. TheOromo. Q8,2000
2. The empire of Mwenemutapa was ruled by

A. a king

B. a council of elders

C. a queen mother

D. a chief. Q9,2001

3. Below are statements about a community in

the

 

 

the

the functions of the Orkoiyot of the Nandi during

pre-colonial period?

A. He advised the council of elders.

B. He distributed land to the members of

community.

C. He organised initiation ceremonies.

D. He punished members of the community who broke the laws.
Q42.2003

Eastern Africa during the precolonial period.

(i) The community was ruled by hereditary kings.

(ii) The community traded with the coastal traders.

(iii) The community practised crop growing. The community described above is
A. the Dinka.

6. The Almoravids attacked the Kingdom of Old Ghana in order to

A. become the rulers of the Kingdom

B. obtain land for settlement

C. control the Trans-Saharan trade

D. assist the Europeans to colonise the area.
Q25,2005

period?

7. Use the map of Africa below to answer

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

7. The traditional kingdom that existed in the area marked R was founded by
A. the Khoi-san

B. the Soninke

C. the Nyamwezi

D. the Shona. Q29,2003

8. Which one of the following was a function of the Kabaka of Buganda during the pre-colonial

K.C.P.E REVISION

A. Controlling trade in the Kingdom.

B. Making the budget for the Kingdom.

C. Distributing land for farming.

D. Organising people for communal work.
Q33,2005

9. Which one of the following duties was performed by the Ntemi Chief among the Nyamwezi during the pre- colonial period?
A. Organizing marriage ceremonies.

B. Distributing land to farmers.

C. Controlling trade.

D. Leading hunting trips.
Q12,2007

10. Which one of the following was the title given to the ruler of Buganda Kingdom in the 19th century?

A. Saza.

B. Bataka.

C. Kabaka.

D. Katikiro. Q8,2008

11. Which one of the following was the function of the council of elders among the Ameru during the pre- colonial period?

A. Making laws.

B. Healing the sick

C. Carrying out raids.

D. Foretelling the future.
Q13,2008

12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the social organization of the San during the pre-colonial period?

A. They lived in small groups of families.
467

B. They had a strong clan system.

C. They lived in permanent homes.

D. They practiced circumcision.
Q17,2008

13. In Old Ghana, the king was succeeded by

A. the Queen Mother

B. his sister’s son

C. his eldest son

D. his youngest brother.
Q27,2008

14. During the pre-colonial period, the Baganda were ruled by

A. A council of elders

B. A queen mother

C. A chief

D. A king Q11,2009

15. The following are functions that were performed by traditional leaders during the pre- colonial period.
(i) Settling deputes.

(ii) Treating the sick.

(iii) Blessing the warrior.

(iv) Allocating land to clan members.

iv) Foretelling the future.

14.Which one of the following functions above was performed by the council of elders in traditional African societies?

A. (i), (ii), (v)

B. (ii), (iii), (v)

C. (i), (iii), (iv)

D. (iii), (iv), (vi) Q14,2009

13. Which one of the following titles used in Buganda Kingdom during the pre-colonial period is correctly matched with its officer?

Title Officer
A. Katikiro ——– Prime Minister

B. Mtwale ——– Treasurer

C. Omuwanika Chief Justice

D. Omulamuzi ——– Army Officer

Q9,2010

14. Which one of the following communities was ruled by a king during the pre-colonial period?
A. The Khoikhoi.

B. The Wanyamwezi.

C. The Abawanga.

D. The Ameru. Q16,2010

 

African response to colonization

1. Sarnore Toure and Lobengula are remembered in the history of Africa because they
A. resisted the establishment of colonial rule in their countries
B. welcomed the Europeans into their countries
C. assisted the Europeans to conquer their neighbours
D. encouraged other African leaders to accept European colonisation. Q28,2000
2. African resistance against European colonisation failed mainly because the Africans
A. lacked modern weapons

B. were disunited

C. had small armies

D. had poor means of communication Q32,2001

3. Which one of the following is a result of colonial

K.C.P.E REVISION 468

rule in Africa?

A. Promotion of African traditional education.

B. Development of transport system.

C. Introduction of crop farming.

D. Promotion of African traditional religion.

Q24,2002

4. Three of the following are results of Maji Maji rebellion. Which one is not? It resulted in

A. loss of many lives in Southern Tanganyika

B. division of Tanganyika among different European Powers.
C. destruction of property of the local people

D. establishment of strict German control in some Areas Q26,2002
5. Europeans were unable to conquer Ethiopia during the scramble for Africa because the
A. Ethiopians were united under able rulers

B. Ethiopians were helped by their neighbours

C. Europeans lacked superior weapons

D. Europeans were divided among themselves
Q39,2002

6. Lobengula led the Ndebele against the British Colonial invasion because
A. the British refused to allow him make guns

B. he thought that the British were weak

C. he wanted to continue ruling his people

D. the British refused to let him travel to England

Q43, 2003

7. The African Communities that resisted European colonisation were defeated mainly because
A. the Europeans had superior weapons

B. some Africans assisted the Europeans

C. African leaders were cheated by the Europeans

D. African warriors were poorly trained.

Q31, 2005

8. Which one of the following is a reason why the Maasai collaborated with the British during the establishment of colonial rule?

A. They wanted to strengthen their trade links with

the British.

B. They wanted to get employment in the settler farms.
C. They wanted the support of the British against their enemies.
D. They wanted to get modern education.

Q34, 2005

9. Which one of the following African leaders collaborated with the Europeans during the establishment of Colonial rule?
A. Lewanika of the Lozi.

B. Samore Toure of the Mandinka.

C. Kabaka Mwanga of the Baganda.
D. Sakawa of the Abagusii. Q24, 2007 10.Who among the following traditional Kenyan
leaders collaborated with the British during the establishment of colonial rule?

A. Karuri wa Gakure.

B. Mekatilili.

C. Samoei.

K.C.P.E REVISION 469

D. Sakawa. Q11,
2008

11. Who among the following leaders in Tanganyika united the Africans during the Maji Maji rebellion?

A. Fundikira.

B. Mirambo.

C. Nyungu ya Mawe.
D. Kinjikitile Ngwale. Q29, 2008 12.The following statements describe a prominent
traditional Kenyan leader.

(i) He was a medicine man.

(ii) He disrupted the construction of Kenya- Uganda railway.

(iii) He was killed by the British. The leader described above is
A. Masaku

B. Sakawa

C. Koitalel arap Samoei

D. Waiyaki wa Hinga.
Q22,2009

13. Horticultural farming in Kenya is different from that in the Netherlands in that
A. horticultural cooperatives are better organized in Kenya than in the Netherlands
B. Kenya has a wider local market than the Netherlands

C. Farming is less mechanized in Kenya than in the Netherlands
D. there are more horticultural farms in Kenya than in the Netherlands.
Q26, 2009

 

African response to scramble of Africa

1. Samoei of the Nandi and Mekatilili of the Agiriama had one thing in common, It is that both

A. were opposed to the building of the railway

B. prophesied about the coming of the Europeans
C. foresaw defeat of Europeans by Africans

D. resisted the British colonial rule.

Q24 2010

 

2. Which one of the following explains why the people of Tanganyika were defeated by the Germans during the Maji Maji rebellion’?

A. The people of Tanganyika were attacked by their neighbours.

B. Tanganyika had few warriors.

C. The Germans were helped by the British.

D. The Germans had better weapons.

Q35,2010

 

Colonial administration in Africa

1. The system used by France to rule her colonies in Africa was known as
A, assimilation
B. direct rule
C. indirect rule
D. association. Q29,2000
2. Which one of the following was a result of British rule in Nigeria?
A. It encouraged African traditional religions.
B. It promoted unity among different African communities.
C. It led to the development of roads.
D. It promoted African traditional education.
Q30,2000
3. Three of the following are results of European

K.C.P.E REVISION 470

colonial rule in Eastern Africa. Which one is not?

A. Creation of reserves for Africans.

B. Promotion of African culture.

C. Introduction of modern health facilities.

D. Introduction of modern methods of farming
Q34,2001

4. Which one of the following was the main duty of diviners in Africa before the coming of Europeans?

A. Settling disputes among members of the community.

B. Allocating land to members of the community.

C. Leading the warriors to fight their enemies.

D. Telling the community what would happen in future.
Q22,2001

5. Which one of the following European countries used

indirect rule to administer their colonies in Africa?

A. Britain.

B. France.

C. Germany.

D. Portugal. Q33,2002

6. Which one of the following is a result of colonial rule in Africa?
A. Promotion of African traditional education.

B. Development of transport system.

C. Introduction of crop farming.

D. Promotion of African traditional religion.

Q34,2002

7. In which one of the following French colonies did the

policy of Assimilation succeed?

A. Chad.

B. Dahomey.

C. Senegal.

D. Guinea. Q43,2003

8. Below are historical events which took place in Kenya before 1918.
(i) Uganda railway reached Kisumu

(ii) The Giriama resistance broke out

(iii) The first European missionaries arrived at the coast.
(iv) Kenya became a British protectorate

What is the correct order in which the events occurred?

A. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i).

B. (iv), (iii), (ii), (iv).

C. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii).

D. (iv), (iii), (i), (ii). Q45,2003

9. Africans in Kenya were not allowed to grow some cash crops because they
A. were taking care of their animals

B. owned small pieces of land

C. were required to provide labour for settlers D lived in areas that had many crop diseases
Q46,2003

10. Which one of the following was a result of British colonial rule in Africa?
A. Promotion of African cultural practices.

B. Loss of fertile land by Africans.

K.C.P.E REVISION 471

C. Establishment of the same schools for children of different races.
D. Appointment of Africans to be in charge of the colonies. Q47,2003
11. Which one of the following activities of the European
colonial rulers had a good effect on Africans?

A. Marking of boundaries between colonies.

B. Creation of reserves for the Africans.

C. Assimilation

D. Association. Q39, 2008 15.One of the duties of African chiefs in Kenya during
the colonial period was to

A. organize for supply of labour to settler farms

B. provide food to freedom fighters

C. nominate people to the Native Councils

D. conduct oathing ceremonies. Q41, 2008

 

 

the

C. Imposing taxes on Africans.

D. Introduction of western education in

16. Which one of the following activities of European colonial rulers had positive effects on Africans?

A. Introduction of western education.

colonies. Q19,2005

12. Which one of the following Kenyan communities is

correctly matched with its traditional leader?

Community Leader

A. Akamba Sakawa

B. Agiriama Mekatilili

C. Nandi Masaku
D. Abagusii Samoei Q40, 2006 13.The Imperial British East Africa Company
stopped administering Kenya because

A. the settlers were against the company

B. the company mistreated Africans

C. the company lacked funds

D. the company was abolished. Q32, 2008
14. The method used by the Portuguese to administer Mozambique was

A. Direct rule

B. Indirect rule

B. Creation of reserves for Africans.

C. Making of boundaries between colonies.

D. Making Africans pay taxes. Q29, 2010

 

 

Scramble and partition in Africa
1. The countries marked S and T were ruled by
A. Britain
B. Portugal
C. Italy
D. Germany. Q33,2000
2. European nations established colonies in Africa during the nineteenth century in order to
A. promote good relations with African leaders

B. secure markets for manufactured goods from Europe
C. encourage Africans to grow cash crops

D. obtain land to settle European refugees.

Q31,2001

3. European countries scrambled for colonies in Africa

K.C.P.E REVISION 472

mainly to

A. obtain raw materials

B. settle their surplus population

C. spread Christianity

D. stop slave trade Q44, 2003

4. Which one of the following groups of countries was colonised by the British?
A. Libya, Egypt, Mozambique.

B. Lesotho, Zambia, Sierra Leone.

C. Ethiopia, Angola, Benin.

D. Senegal, Chad, Tunisia. Q45, 2006

5.

The country marked J was colonized by

A. France

B. Portugal

C. Italy

D. Belgium. Q19, 2007

6.

 

 

The countries marked R and S were colonized by

A. Britain

B. Germany

C. Portugal

D. Italy. Q25, 2008

7.Which one of the following methods of colonial administration was used by the British in Northern Nigeria?

B. Indirect rule.

C. Association.

D. Assimilation. Q12, 2009 8.Which one of the following groups of countries in
Africa was colonized by the French?
A. Mali, Namibia , Uganda
B. Senegal, Madagascar, Mali
C. Togo, Angola, Zambia
D. Tanganyika, Cameroon, Angola Q46, 2010

9. Which one of the following countries in Africa was colonised by the French?
A. Angola.

B. Chad.

C. Tanganyika.

D. Gambia. Q23,2005

A. The nationalists established bases in neighbouring

countries.

B. The nationalists organised guerrilla warfare.

C. The nationalists formed political parties.

D. The nationalists were helped by the OAU.

Q40,2001

2. The following events took place during the struggle for independence in Kenya. Which one came first?

A. Nomination of the first African to the Legislative Council.
B. The release of Jomo Kenyatta from detention.

C. The first Lancaster House Conference.

D. Declaration of the State of Emergency.

Q41,2001

3. Which one of the following events in Kenya took place first?
A. Formation of Kikuyu Central Association.

B. Election of eight African representatives to the Legislative Council.
C. Release of Jomo Kenyatta from detention.

D. Nomination of the second African to
the

Legislative Council. Q29,2002 4.Thomas Mboya is remembered in kenya because he

Struggle for independence
1. Which one of the following statements is true
about

the struggle for independence in Tanganyika?

A. promoted the Harambee spirit.

B. was the first African to join the legislative council (Leg Co)
C. led the Trade Union movement

D. was the first chairman of the Organisation of

African Unity (O.A.U.).

Q49, 2003

B. Tanzania – Benjamin Mkapa.

C. Mozambique – Joakim Chissano.

5. Which one of the following was an effect of the Second World War on African Nationalism in Kenya?

A. It made the Africans stop working in
the

European farms.

B. It increased the Africans’ desire for independence.
C. It led to the Africans being nominated to the Legislative Council.
D. It reduced the Africans’ dislike for the Europeans.
Q41, 2005

6. The political party which led Ghana to independence in 1957 was
A. the National Liberation Movement (NLM)

B. the Convention Peoples’ Party (CPP)

C. the Northern Peoples’ Party (NPP)

D. the United Gold Coast Convention (UGCC)
Q44,2005

7. In Kenya, 12th December 1964 is remembered as the day when the country became

A. a member of the United Nations

B. a member of the East African Community

C. a one-party state
D. a Republic. Q51, 2005 8.Which one of the following African countries is
correctly matched with its first president?

Country President

A. Zimbabwe – Robert Mugabe.

D. Somalia – Mohamed Abdullahi Yusufu.

Q52, 2005

9. Which one of the following was a reason why the Mau Mau uprising took place in Kenya?

A. The Africans were demanding the establishment

of schools.

B. The Africans were opposed to the construction of the railway.
C. The Africans were against the British Constitution.
D. The Africans were demanding the return of their
land. Q18, 2006

10. The main method used by the Africans in Zimbabwe to attain their independence was
A. boycotting work

B. seeking support from neighbours

C. fighting guerilla warfare

D. negotiating with the colonialists Q26, 2007

11. Which one of the following became the title of the Head of State in Kenya when the country was declared a republic?
A. The prime minister.

B. The governor.

C. The president.
D. The emperor. Q49, 2008 12.Which one of the following is the reason why
Madaraka day is celebrated in Kenya?

A. To remember the day when self government was attained.
B. To remember the day freedom fighters were arrested.

C. To remember the day when Mau Mau movement started.

D. To remember the day Kenya became a colony.

Q46, 2009

13. June 1st is important in Kenya because it is the day
A. freedom fighters were released from detention
B. Kenya got internal self government

C. the country became a republic

D. Kenya became a multi-party state. ( KADU ).

1. Which one of the following countries in Africa is a member
of the Commonwealth?
A. Lybia
B. Senegal,
C. Zambia.
D. Angola. Q53,2000

2. Which one of the following groups of countries are members of the Commonwealth?

 

Q12, 2010

14. Below are statements about a political party that was formed in Kenya during the colonial period.

(i) It supported a regional government.
(ii) It was formed by the smaller communities.
(iii) It was formed in 1960.
(iv) One of its founder members was Ronald Ngala.
The political party described above is

A. Kenya African Union (KAU)

B. Kenya People’s Union (KPU)

C. Kenya African National Union ( K ANU)

D. Kenya African Democratic Union
Q47,2010

 

International co-operations

 

C. D. Q32,2002

3. The organisation which brings together countries that were colonised by Britain is
A. East African Community

B. United Nations

C. Commonwealth of Nations

D. African Q51 ,2003

4. The United Nations Organisation was formed in 1945 mainly to

A. promote democracy in the world

B. promote economic cooperation among

nations

C. promote Human Rights in all the countries

D. promote peace in the world.
Q43,2005

5. Three of the following statements are true about the

8. Which one of the following groups of countries in Africa got assistance from the Organization of African Unity (OAU) to achieve independence?

Commonwealth. Which one is not?

A. It promotes uniform education systems in member states.
B. Most of its members are former British B
colonies.

C. It has its headquarters in London.

D. It is headed by the Queen of England.

Q46,2003

6. One of the reasons why African countries formed the African Union (AU) was to

A. fight against crime in the continent

B. assist in the election of leaders for member states
C. re-draw the boundaries of member states

D. bring greater economic cooperation in the continent. Q26,2006
7. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations (UN) is responsible for resolving disputes between member countries?
A. The Secretariat.

B. The Security Council.

C. The General Assembly.

D. The Economic and Social Council. Q51,2007

 

C D

Q47,2008

 

9. The main reason why the United Nations (UN) was Formed was to
A. promote Economic cooperation among nations
B. take care of the environment
C. promote peace in the world D take care of refugees.
Q34,2009

8. Which one of the following groups of countries formed the Eastern African Community in 1967?

A. Kenya, Uganda and Tanzania.

B. Kenya, Rwanda and Burundi.

C. Kenya, Tanzania and Rwanda.

D. Kenya, Uganda and Burundi.
Q38,2009

 

Present systems of governments

1. The head of government in Ethiopia is a

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. King

D. Queen Q40,2000

2. The head of state in Uganda is

A. a King

B. a Prime Minister

C. a President

D. an Emperor
Q31,2002

1. The head of State in Swaziland is the

A. King

B. President

C. Chief

D. Prince Q58,2003

3. The governments of Kenya and Swaziland are similar in that
A. the winning party in elections forms the government
B. the queen mother influences government decisions

C. the parliaments have two houses

D. the head of state appoints the cabinet.
Q54,2006

 

4. The government of Swaziland is headed by

A. a Secretary General

B. a Prime Minister

C. a President

D. a King. Q36,2007

 

5. Which one of the following statements is true about the system of government of Swaziland?
A. Members of parliament elect the Prime Minister.

B. All members of parliament are elected by the people
C. The Head of State is the commander – in-chief of the armed forces.
D. The Queen Mother chairs cabinet meetings.

Q25,2010

 

Early visitors to Eastern Africa

1. Which one of the following was a result of the settlement of the Arabs along the coast of East Africa?

A. Emergence of Swahili culture.

B. Introduction of barter trade.

C. Introduction of maize growing.

D. Construction of hospitals.
Q17,2006

2. Which one of the following was a result of the coming of the Arabs to Eastern Africa?

A. Introduction of growing of cloves in Zanzibar.

B. Building of Fort Jesus at Mombasa.

C. Setting up of kingdoms in the interior.

D. Construction of the railway to the interior.

Q10,2007

3. Where was the first Christian mission station in Kenya established in the 19th century?

A. At Rabai.

B. At Kabaa.

C. At Mumias.

D. At Kibwezi. Q22,2008

4. Below are statements about the achievements of a missionary who came to Eastern Africa in the 19th Century

(i) He established a mission station at Rabai.
(ii) He wrote the first Kiswahili dictionary.

(iii) He taught Africans to read and write. The missionary described above is
A. David Livingstone

B. Ludwig Krapf

C. Jacob Erhardt

D. Johann Rebmann. Q17,2010

 

Contributions of important personalities

1.. One of the contributions of Jomo Kenyatta to the History of Kenya is that he
A. formed the first political party in the country B. was the first African member of the Legislative Council

C. promoted the Harambee spirit in the country

D. formed trade unions to fight for African workers.

Q38,2000

2. One of the achievements of Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana is that
A. he led the trade union movement in Ghana
during the colonial period

B. he abolished taxation in his country

C. he led the country to independence

D. he introduced large scale cocoa farming in Ghana. Q44,2001
3. Leopold Sedar Senghor contributed to democracy in Senegal by
A. introducing French culture in the country

B. allowing the formation of many political parties

C. introducing military skills learnt during the Second World War
D. forming a cabinet after becoming the first president.
Q12,2006

4. One of the achievements of Nelson Mandela is that

A. he took part in making the first constitution in South Africa
B. he was the first black president in South Africa

C. he formed the party that fought for South Africa’s independence
D. he led the demonstrations at Sharpeville town

in South Africa. Q15,2006

5. Which one of the following is an achievement of Daniel Arap Moi?

A. He promoted communal farming.

B. He was the first African representative to the Legislative Council.

C. He was a founder member of Kenya African Union.
D. He promoted soil conservation activities in the country Q46,2007
4. The following are some historical events that have taken place in Kenya since independence.
(i) Daniel Arap Moi retired as president

(ii) Section 2A of the constitution was amended

(iii) Kenya became a republic.

Which is the correct order in which the events took place?

A. (i), (iii), (ii)

B. (iii), (ii), (i)

C. (i), (ii), (iii)

D. (ii), (iii), (i) Q33,2009

5. Which one of the following statements is true of both Julius Nyerere of Tanzania and Haile Selassie of Ethiopia
A. They led their countries to independence.

B. They were founder members of the OAU.

C. They were forced out of the of the power by the army.

D. They introduced socialism in their countries.

Q47,2009

 

Political movements in Kenya before indipedence

1. Three of the following are roles played by the early

political associations in Kenya between 1914 and 1945.

Which one is not?

A. Defending African culture.

B. Fighting for better wages for workers.

C. Demanding for the release of Jomo Kenyatta.

D. Demanding that Africans be allowed to grow cash crops.
Q37,2007

2. The political associations formed in Kenya before 1939 had one factor in common. It was that they

A. had members from all communities in the country
B. were against female circumcision

C. demanded fair treatment for Africans

D. were supported by European missionaries
Q36,2000

3. Below are statements about a political party formed in Kenya during the colonial period.
(i) It was the first national party to be formed.

(ii) It collaborated with the Mau Mau freedom fighters.
(iii) Its first President was James Samuel Gichuru. The party described above is
A. Kenya African National Union (KANU).

B. Kenya African Union (KAU).

C. Kenya African Democratic Union (KADU).

D. Kenya Peoples’ Union (KPU). Q42,2001

LAW, PEACE
AND RECONCILIATION
1. Three of the following are symbols of national unity in Kenya. Which one is not?
A. National flag.

B. National Anthem.

C. Coat of Arms.

D. Armed forces. Q51,2000

2. The colour of the National flag of Kenya which represents peace is
A. white

B. green

C. black

D. red. Q59,2001

3. Two pupils are arguing about the ownership of a book. The best way for the teacher to resolve the conflict is by
A. encouraging the pupils to argue until one wins

B. withdrawing the book from the pupils

C. listening to the argument and advising the pupils

C. ensure that the stranger is arrested

D. take the pupil to the hospital.
Q29,2006

5. Which one of the following colours of the national flag of Kenya represents land of plenty?
A. Red.

B. Green.

C. White.

D. Black. Q36,2006

6. Ngao has been caught by his classmates stealing a bunch of ripe bananas from a farm near their school.

The most appropriate action for the pupils to take is to

A. report Ngao to the headteacher

B. ask Ngao to give the bananas to a poor family

C. share the bananas with Ngao

D. punish Ngao for this behaviour.
Q53,2006

 

7. Three of the following statements are true about Kenya’s National Anthem. Which one is not?

A. It is a form of entertainment.

D. advising the pupils against arguing over the
book
Q16,2006
4.A pupil has been sexually abused by a stranger on the way home from school. The immediate action

B. It unites the citizens.

C. It promotes patriotism.

D. It is a prayer.
Q56,2010

for

the parents to take is to

A. inform the school about the matter

B. advise the pupil to avoid talking to strangers

8. Which one of the following actions by the government would best promote national unity in Kenya?

A. Establishment of urban centres.

B. Construction of roads.

C. Provision of hospitals.

D. Provision of recreational facilities.
Q28,2003

9. Which one of the following statements is true

about the National Flag of Kenya?

A. It is a symbol of national unity.

B. It was given to Kenyans by the British.

C. Its colours represent the arms of Government.

D. It was inherited from freedom fighters.

Q58,2003

10. Three of the following are national philosophies in Kenya. Which one is not?
A. African Socialism

B. Harambee

C. Pan Africanism

D. Nyayoism. Q58,2005

Standard VIII prefect finds her two classmates

quarrelling in class. The right action for the prefect to take is to

A. ignore the pupils

B. punish the pupils

C. send the pupils out of class

D. discuss the issue with the pupils
Q30,2007

12. Which one of the following is a way of promoting peace in society?

A. Allowing many foreigners into the country.

B. Punishing suspected criminals.

C. Encouraging the spirit of forgiveness.

D. Reducing the number of political parties.

Q33,2007

13. In Kenya the national flag is raised in order to

A. display its beauty

B. promote the harambee spirit

C. promote loyalty among citizens

D. show the direction of the wind.
Q60,2007

 

14. Which one of the following cultural practices did the Abaluyia borrow from the Luo as they interacted during the pre-colonial period?

A. The removal of six lower teeth.

B. Respect for the spirit of the ancestors.

C. Use of herbs to treat diseases.

D. Marrying of many wives.
Q30,2008

 

15. The reason why the Kenya National Anthem is important is that

A. it was written when Kenya became independent

B. it creates unity among Kenya citizens

C. it is sung in all schools in Kenya

D. it is played during national celebrations.
Q,60,2008

 

16.. Three of the following are ways through which national unity can be promoted in Kenya.
Which one is not?

A. Encouraging people to listen to vernacular radio
stations.

K.C.P.E REVISION 482

B. Encouraging people to participate in national games.
C. Ensuring that people are free to settle in any part of the country.

D. Ensuring that people know how to sing the National Anthem.
Q59,2009

 

17. The best way of encouraging people in Kenya to be law abiding is by

A. employing more police officers to enforce the law
B. confining law breakers in prisons

C. educating people on the importance of observing the law
D. rewarding people who obey the law
Q57,2004.

 

18. Which one of the following reasons least explains why corruption should be wiped out in Kenya?

A. To promote peace.

B. To promote national unity.

C. To promote economic development.

D. To promote individual talents.
Q31,2004

 

Citizenship

1. A foreign lady who marries a Kenyan man may be allowed to become a citizen of Kenya only if she

A. shows respect to her husband

B. has children

C. has lived in Kenya for many years

D. applies to become a Kenyan. Q46,2000

2. A good citizen of Kenya is one who

A. attends prayer meetings regularly

B. obeys the laws of the land

C. attends political rallies regularly

D. owns a lot of property Q53,2001

3. One may become a Kenyan citizen through

A. registration

B. employment

C. migration

D. Marriage Q,47,2004

 

4. It is important for Kenya citizens to vote during the general elections because
A. it shows their loyalty to the president

B. it enables them to remove political leaders whose work is poor
C. it shows their obedience to the electoral commission
D. it enables the government to know people’s level
of education.
Q19,2006

 

5. Mutua, a football player who is representing Kenya in the Commonwealth Games is promised a lot of money by a Canadian Coach if he agrees to play for Canada. He refuses the offer. The action by Mutua shows that

A. he loves his country

B. he fears the Canadian

C. he has enough money

D. he is foolish
Q38,2007

 

6. David Smith, a former British citizen has acquired Kenyan Citizenship through naturalization. Smith may loose his Kenyan citizenship if he

A. destroys his national identity card

B. refuses to vote during general elections

C. visits a foreign country

D. is found with illegal drugs.
Q59,2007

 

foreigner who wishes to become a citizen of Kenya is

required to obtain

A. a school leaving certificate

B. a marriage certificate

C. a registration certificate

D. a birth certificate.
Q59,2007

 

8. The best way to stop drug abuse in schools is by

A. fencing school compounds to keep off peddlers

B. giving heavy punishments to drug users

C. arresting suspected drug dealers

D. educating pupils on dangers of using drugs.

Q15,2010

foreigner qualifies to apply for Kenyan citizenship after living in the country continuously for
A. two years

B. five years

C. seven years

D. ten years.
Q21,2010

 

10. Three of the following are actions which indicate that a person is a patriotic citizen. Which one is not?

A. Welcoming visitors at one’s home.

B. Participating in tree planting.

C. Contributing towards famine relief.
D. Attending rallies on national days.
Q42,2010

 

 

DEMOCRACY
AND HUMAN RIGHTS
1. Juma has written a letter to the editor of a local newspaper giving his opinion on the review of the Constitution of Kenya. Which one of the following freedoms is Juma exercising? Freedom of
A. expression.
B. worship.
C. movement.
D. association. Q52,2000

2. Kenya citizens are allowed to register as voters for parliamentary election when they
A. become members of political parties

B. have completed primary level of education

C. participate in development projects

D. have attained the age of 18 years.

Q48,2001

person who is under house arrest is denied the
Freedom of

A. Speech

B. Worship

C. Ownership of property

D. Movement
Q57,2003

4. Which one of the following events took place in Kenya in 1991?

A. General elections were held.

B. Section 2A of the constitution was repealed.

C. A new constitution was made.

D. Regional governments were established.

Q52,200
4

5. In Kenya, the rights of an individual are guaranteed by the

A. National Assembly

B. Constitution

C. Judiciary

D. Police Force
Q55,2004

 

6. Which one of the following Human Rights is enjoyed by Kenya citizens on attaining the age of 18 years?

A. The right to vote.

B. The right to worship.

C. The right to life.
K.C.P.E REVISION

D. The right to security.
Q32,2006

7. Below are statements about a political party in Kenya.

(i) Its chairman later became the country’s president.

(ii) It was once the official opposition party.

(iii) It joined with the other parties in 2002 to form NARC.

The political party described above is the

A. Democratic Party of Kenya

B. Ford People

C. Kenya Social Congress

D. Liberal Democratic Party.
Q57,2006

8. Three of the following are benefits of democracy.

Which one is not?

A. It allows equal distribution of land.

B. It allows formation of many political parties.

C. it allows citizens to choose their leaders.

D. It allows freedom of speech.
Q59,2006

 

9. Which one of the following is a benefit of a representative democracy?

A. People freely elect their leaders.

B. All citizens take part in decision-making.

C. All people obey the law.

D. Citizens are excused from paying taxes.
Q29,2007

10. The main role of the opposition parties in a democratic system of government is to
485

A. educate citizens on their rights

B. nominate members to parliament

C. promote development projects

D. ensure that the country is administered fairly.

Q41,2007

11. Lewa, a pupil at Chui Primary School has been

refused by his teacher to go for break for failing to

answer questions in class. Which one of the following child rights has Lewa been denied?

A. The right to privacy.

B. The right to leisure.

C. The right to education.

D. The right to security.
Q53,2007

 

12. Three of the following are benefits of democracy.
Which one is not?

A. Laws are applied fairly to all people.

B. People are made to join the ruling party.

C. People are free to elect their leaders.

D. People respect human rights.
Q56,2008

 

13. The reason why the Kenya National Anthem is important is that

A. it was written when Kenya became independent

B. it creates unity among Kenya citizens

C. it is sung in all schools in Kenya

D. it is played during national celebrations.
Q60,2008

14. Three of the following are roles of political parties in a

democracy. Which one is not?

A. They encourage citizens to take part in election.
B. They monitor activities of the government.

C. They campaign for equal rights for the citizens.

D. They approve bills to be debated in parliament.
Q40,2009

pupil has been told by the parents to help in fetching water for sale instead of attending school.
The best action for the pupil to take is to

A. ignore the parents

B. accept to do the work

C. run away from home

D. report the matter to the head teacher.
Q43,2009

foreigner living in Kenya may enjoy the following rights except
A. Right to life

B. Right to own property

C. Right to fair trial

D. Right to vote during general elections
Q55,2009

17. Maria was stopped from joining a women’s group by her husband. Which one of the following freedoms was she denied? Freedom of

A. expression

B. association

C. movement

D. worship. Q28,2010 17.Which one of the following is an economic right?

A. Right to life.

B. Right to education.

C. Right to work.

D. Right to privacy.
Q57,2010

 

GOVERNMENT
OF KENYA
Arms of government
1. One of the duties of a chief of a location in Kenya is to

A. appoint social development officers in the location

B. make laws for governing the location

C. supervise parliamentary elections in the location
D. maintain security in the location.

37,2000

2. Which one of the following officers is appointed by the Public Service Commission (PSC) of Kenya?
A. Chiefs to head locations.

B. Speaker of the National Assembly.

C. Headteachers of primary schools.

D. Judges of the high court. Q54,2001

3. Three of the following statements are true about the

not? The President

A. chairs cabinet meetings

B. is the Chancellor of Public Universities

C. clears candidates for general elections

D. is the head of the Central Government.

Q58,2001

3. A person becomes the Speaker of the National Assembly in Kenya through
A. nomination by the President

B. election by members of parliament

C. election by registered voters

D. nomination by the Electoral Commission

Q48,2002

5. In Kenya, a member of parliament may lose the parliamentary seat when the member
A. misses eight continuous sittings in parliament

B. is unpopular among parliamentarians

C. makes little contributions during parliamentary
debates

D. fails to visit the constituency regularly

Q49,2002

6. Which one of the following age conditions

is a requirement for those who wish to be elected President of Kenya? They must have attained the age of
A. 55 years.

B. 35 years.

C. 21 years.

functions of the President of Kenya. Which one is

D. 18 years.
Q50,2003

7. Who among the following leaders is responsible for keeping law and order in a location in Kenya?
A. The Chief.

B. The Religious leader.

C. The Councillor.

D. The Member of Parliament (M.P).
Q54,2003

 

8. The members of parliament in the Republic of Kenya are sworn in by the
A. Chief Justice

B. The Speaker of the National Assembly

C. Attorney-General

D. Chairman of the Electoral Commission

Q55,2003

9. The stages through which a bill passes before it becomes law are called

A. readings

B. sessions

C. discussions

D. Sittings Q53,2004

10. The most senior civil servant in a government ministry in Kenya is the
A. Under secretary

B. Auditor general

C. Director general

D. Permanent secretary
Q54,2004

11. Which one of the following officers advises

Government of Kenya on legal matters?

A. The Court Prosecutor.

B. The Chief Magistrate.

C. The Vice-President.

D. The Attorney-General.
Q59,2004

12. Three of the following are powers of the President of Kenya. Which one is not?

A. Dissolving parliament.

B. Pardoning criminals.

C. Supervising elections.

D. Appointing judges. Q60,2004 13.In Kenya, laws are made by
A. the High Court

B. the Judicial Service Commission

C. the National Assembly

D. the Public Service Commission. Q53,2005

 

14. One parliamentary duty of the president of Kenya is to

A. appoint the Speaker of the National Assembly

B. open parliamentary sessions

C. chair parliamentary meetings

D. swear in the members of parliament.

Q54,2005

15. The main source of revenue for the Government of Kenya is
A. fines

B. grants

C. loans

D. taxes. Q57,2005

16. Nomination of members of parliament in Kenya is done by

A. the Attorney-General

B. the constituency development committees

C. the Electoral Commission

D. the political parties. Q59,2005

 

17. Which one of the following courts in Kenya is the
lowest?

A. Chief Magistrate’s Court

B. District Magistrate’s Court

C. Principal Magistrate’s Court

D. Resident Magistrate’s Court Q60,2005 18.In Kenya, justice is administered by
A. the Armed Forces

B. the prisons

C. the Judiciary

D. the Cabinet. Q39,2006

19. Which one of the following is the correct order of the Provincial Administration in Kenya?

Q27,2007

20. The court system in Kenya is headed by the

A. Chief Magistrate

B. Chief Justice

C. Registrar of the High Court
D. Attorney General. Q34,2007 21.According to the laws of Kenya, amending
the constitution is the responsibility of

A. the High Court

B. the office of the President

C. the National Assembly

D. the Judicial Service Commission.
Q48,2007

22. In Kenya, a parliamentary bill becomes law only when it has been signed by
A. the Minister for Constitutional Affairs

B. the Registrar of the High Court

C. the Attorney General

D. the President
Q14,2008

23. Which one of the following government officers
A B
is

correctly matched with the right responsibility?

Government officer responsibilities
C D
A. Attorney General – to arrest criminals

B. Police Officer – to help law breakers to

reform

C. District Commissioner – to explain government
policy

D. Prison Officer – to advice government on legal matters

Q53,2009

24. Which one of the following is a function of parliament in Kenya?

A. Implementing laws.

B. Making laws.

C. Judging those who break the law.

D. Advising the president on matters of law.

Q60,2009

 

Local authorities

1. The Minister for Local Government has the powers to
A. supervise elections of councillors
B. prepare budgets for local authorities
C. appoint mayors of municipal councils
D. approve by-laws for local authorities. Q60,2000
2. Three of the following services are provided by town

councils in Kenya. Which one is not?

A. Medical facilities.

B. Religious facilities.

C. Sports and games facilities.
D. Educational facilities. Q56,2002 3.Below are some administrative units in Kenya.

The cabinet minister in charge of the above areas
is

the

A. Minister of Co-operative Development.

B. Minister of State for Provincial Administration and National Security.
C. Minister for Home Affairs and National Heritage.

D. Minister for Local Government.
Q56,2003

4. Who among the following Municipal Council officials is elected?

A. The Town Clerk.

B. The Treasurer.

C. The Mayor.

D. The Town Engineer. Q50,2007
5. Which one of the following courts in Kenya deals with cases involving people under 18 years of
age?

A. The Court of Appeal.

B. The High Court.

C. The Juvenile Court.

D. The Resident Magistrate’s Court.
Q52,2008

6. One of the functions of local authorities in Kenya is to

(i) County Council

(ii) Town Council

(iii) City Council

(iv) Municipal council

A. build places of worship

B. ensure that people pay taxes

C. issue trade licenses to traders

D. provide security to visitors.
Q58,2009

7. Zawadi is charged a fee every time she goes to the

air market near her home to sell her farm produce. The money she pays goes to

A. the chief of the area

B. the county council

C. the market attendant

D. the constituency development fund.

Q22,2010

8. Municipalities and County Councils are under the Ministry of

A. Home affairs

B. Education

C. Local Government

D. Finance.
Q43,2010

 

National Defence

3. Suspected criminals are kept in cells before being taken to court in order to
A. punish them for the offences they have committed
B. allow time for carrying out investigations

C. give them time to contact their relatives

D. make them clean up the cells. Q49,2001

4. Which one of the following groups of security departments is responsible for protecting Kenya against external attack?

A. B.

1. Traffic Police Officers wear clothes that reflect light at night in order to

A. keep themselves warm

B. warn motorists of dangerous sections of the road

C. protect themselves from lightning

D. make themselves visible to motorists.
Q45,2000

2. Which one of the following is a function of the police force in Kenya?
A. To punish suspected criminals.
B. To ensure that people attend public rallies.
C. To prevent people from committing crime.
D. To protect the country from external attacks.

Q59,2000

C. D.

Q60,2001

5. In Kenya, law and order is maintained by

A. the Police

B. the Army

C. the National Youth Service

D. the Prisons department Q55,2002

6. Which one of the following is the main function of the armed forces in Kenya?

A. Transporting relief food to famine stricken areas.

B. Protecting the country from external attacks.

C. Entertaining guests during national celebrations.

D. Constructing bridges across rivers.
Q48,2004

 

7. Which one of the following police units in Kenya is

correctly matched with its duty?

Police Unit Duty

A. General Service Unit — Assisting in stopping

riots.

B. Administrative Police — Guarding suspected

criminals in the cells.

C. Criminal Investigation — Providing security to Department government officers
D. Dog Handlers’ Unit — Recovering stolen

A. Creating new constituencies

B. Campaigning for candidates

C. Registering voters.

D. Announcing election results.
Q37,2009

3. Which one of the following is a requirement for a person who wishes to be elected as a member of parliament in Kenya?

The person should be

A. married and with children

B. a retired councillor

C. eighteen years and above

D. supported by one thousand registered voters.

Q50,2009

 

National Philosophies

animals.

 

Electoral process

Q46,2006

1. The Harambee movement in Kenya has led to

A. establishment of new towns

B. development of railway transport

C. the expansion of health services

 

1. A person who wishes to be elected the President of the Republic of Kenya must
A. have attained a minimum age of 35 years
B. have served as a member of parliament
C. be a founder member of a political party

 

Legislature

Q45,2009

D. come from a constituency with many voters.

Q54,2000

2. Which one of the following is not a function of the body in charge of elections in Kenya?

1. Which one of the following statements

correctly describes a parliamentary bill?

A It is a document containing names of members of parliament.

B. It is a document that shows how parliament operates.

C It is a proposed law waiting to be discussed in Parliament.

D. It is a law that has been passed by parliament.

Q27,2010

2. In Kenya, a person becomes the speaker of the National Assembly through

A. nomination by the president

B. election by members of parliament

C. nomination by the electoral body

D. election by voters.
Q54,2010

3. Three of the following are circumstances which may lead to a loss of parliamentary seat. Which one is not? When a member of parliament
A. is declared insane

B. B. visits another country

C. is jailed for over six months

D. is declared bankrupt by a court of law.
Q60,2010

Internal security

1. Which one of the following is a duty of the police force in Kenya?
A. To punish law breakers.

B. To judge cases.

C. To defend the country.

D. To arrest suspected criminals.
Q51,2010

 

Sources of government revenue

1. The Government of Kenya obtains revenue mainly through

A. licence fees paid by traders

B. taxes paid by citizens

C. grants given by foreign countries

D. sale of bonds
Q58,2010

 

 

K.C.P.E
C.R.E
2003-2010

TOPICALLY ANALYSED

 

TOPIC 1.

CREATION

5. Which one of the following statements from the stories of creation shows that marriage is permanent?

1. Which one of the following statements from the Bible shows that God wanted human beings to take care of the environment?
A. Let us make man in our own image.
B. Let the earth produce all kinds of animal life.
C. Have many children and fill the earth.
D. Live all over the earth and bring it under control.
Q 61,2000

2. What punishment did God give to Eve because of her disobedience?
A. Suffering while giving birth.
B. Putting on clothes.
C. Eating selected fruits.
D. Living with wild animals.
Q62,2000
3. Which one of the following duties was given to Adam and Eve when God created them?
A. To obey the ten commandments.

B. To offer sacrifice to God.

C. To take care of other living things.

D. To obey the prophets of God. Q61,2001

4. According to the Genesis stories of Creation, which one of the following statements best describes human beings as special? They were
A. moulded from clay

B. created in the image of God

C. created by God’s word of mouth

D. told to name the animals

Q61,2002

A. “The man and the woman were both naked but they were not embarrassed.”
B. “And now we will make human beings, they will be like us and resemble us.”
C. “A man leaves his father and mother and is united with his wife and they become one.”
D. “You listened to your wife and ate the fruit which I told you not to eat.”
Q61,2003

6. Which one of the following is the main reason why God created Eve?
He wanted her to

A. look after the animals

B. take care of the garden of Eden

C. be a companion to Adam

D. eat the fruits of the garden of Eden Q61,2004 7.Adam and Eve are the greatest in God’s creation because they
A. were the last to be created

B. named the animals

C. were made in His likeness

D. took care of the garden of Eden. Q61,2005 8.Which one of the following actions made God
chase Adam and Eve from the garden of Eden?

A. Speaking to the snake.

B. Eating of the forbidden fruit.

C. Destroying God’s creation.

D. Hiding from God. Q61,2006

9. The main teaching of the Genesis stories of creation is that

A. human beings were the last to be created

B. human beings were created to multiply

C. God is the creator of the universe

D. God blessed the day of rest. Q61,2007

B. Abraham.

C. Esau.

D. Joseph.

2. When Moses was called by God he was living in

A. Ur

B. Midian

C. Haran

10. Which one of the following was a result of the disobedience of D. Egypt.
human beings in the garden of Eden?

They were to

A. cultivate the land

B. fill the earth

C. face death

D. become old. Q61,2008

 

11. From the Biblical stories of creation in Genesis 1 and 2. God created Adam and Eve to

A. build places of worship

B. offer gifts to him

C. care for the environment

D. eat the fruits in the garden. Q61,2009

 

GOD SPEAKS TO US IN THE
OLD TESTAMENT

2000:-Q62-69

3. Which one of the following commandments teaches about
respect for human life?

A. ‘Do not commit murder’.

B. ‘Do not accuse anyone falsely’.

C. ‘Do not steal’.

D. ‘Do not desire another man’s house’.

4. Who among the following people was a judge in Israel?

A. Joshua.

 

B. Gideon.

C. Aaron.

D. Miriam.

5. Who among the following kings was punished by God because of performing the duty of a priest?

A. Jehu.

B. Ahab.

C. Saul.

D. Ahaz.

6. Who among the following kings is famous for being wise?
A. David.

 

1. Who among the following people is the father of the Jews?
A. Moses.

B. Jeroboam.

C. Rehoboam.

D. Solomon.

7. The boy raised to life by prophet Elijah was the son of the
A. Shunammite woman

B. Canaanite woman

C. widow of Zarephath

D. widow of Nain.

 

2001:-Q62-69

8. God changed the name of Abram to Abraham

mainly because he wanted to

A. make him a father of nations

B. give him a new land

C. make him rich

D. give him protection.

 

9. Joseph the son of Jacob was sold by his brothers because they
A. hoped to become rich

B. were jealous

C. needed food

D. wanted to visit Egypt.

 

10. Which one of the following qualities of God is shown on the night the Jews left Egypt?
A. He is the creator.

B. He is forgiving.

C. He is a saviour.

D. He is holy.

11. Who among the following people asked God to forgive the Israelites at Mount Sinai?
A. Moses.

B. Joshua.

C. Miriam.

D. Aaron.

 

12. David annoyed God when he

A. killed Goliath

B. killed Uriah

C. cried over the death of Saul

D. married many women.

 

13. ‘Give me the wisdom I need to rule your people with justice’ (1 Kings 3:9). These words were spoken by King
A. Ahaz

B. Solomon

C. Jeroboam

D. Ahab.

 

14. Who among the following prophets anointed Saul to be King of Israel?
A. Elisha.

B. Isaiah.

C. Nathan.

D. Samuel.

15. The prophets of Baal were put to test by Elijah on Mount Carmel to show that
A. God answers prayers

B. God is three in one

C. Baal was asleep

D. Baal was a coward.

 

2002:-Q62-69

16. Which one of the following activities shows Abraham’s obedience to God?
A. Moving from Haran to Canaan.

B. Visiting his cousin Lot.

C. Going to Egypt.

D. Marrying Sarah.

 

17. Joseph was able to overcome the temptations from the wife of Potipher because he
A. feared his father Jacob

B. was hardworking

C. was physically strong

D. believed in God.

 

18. Which one of the following activities was carried out by the Israelites on the night of the Passover in Egypt? They
A. worshipped the golden calf

B. offered their first borns to God

C. ate roast meat

D. drank wine.

65. ‘Do not desire another man’s house; do not desire his wife, his slaves, his cattle, his donkeys or anything else that he owns.’(Exodus 20:17)
Who among the following people broke this commandment?
A. Ahab.

B. Joshua.

C. Saul.

D. Moses.

 

19. Which one of the following values do Christians learn from the story of Gideon when he was led by the spirit to defeat the Midianites?
A. Courage.

B. Honesty.

C. Kindness.

D. Tolerance

 

20. Who among the following prophets challenged the worship of Baal on Mount Carmel?
A. Micah.

B. Samuel

C. Elijah.

D. Isaiah.

 

21. In which one of the following ways did King David

make Jerusalem a centre of worship?

A. Building the temple.

B. Defeating his enemies.

C. Appointing priests to serve in the temple.

D. Bringing in the ark of the covenant.

 

22. According to prophet Jeremiah the new covenant would be different from the old covenant because it will be
A. written in peoples’ hearts

B. written on stone tablets

C. for the Gentiles

D. sealed by animal blood

 

(2003:-Q62-69)

23. The sign of the covenant made between Noah and God was
A. water

B. rainbow

C. cloud

D. blood.

 

24. Joseph became a famous man in the land of Egypt

mainly because he was

A. courageous

B. forgiving

C. hardworking

D. faithful.

25. Which one of the following activities shows what the Israelites did with the blood of the lambs they killed on the Passover night? They
A. put it on their doorposts

B. poured it in their gardens

C. took it to Moses

D. poured it in the rivers of Egypt.

 

26. The main lesson the Israelites learnt about God when the Egyptians drowned in the Red sea was that. He is
A. jealous

B. powerful

C. holy

D. merciful.

 

5. Who among the following kings disobeyed God’s command to kill all the animals captured in war?
A. Saul.

B. Jeroboam.

C. Solomon.

D. Ahab.

 

27. Jesse, the father of David lived in

A. Bethlehem

B. Jerusalem

C. Samaria

D. Nazareth.

28. Who among the following people was thrown into the

lion’s den?

A. Darius.

B. Daniel.

C. Shadrack.

D. Nebuchadnezzar.

 

29. The prophet who anointed Solomon to be King of Israel was
A. Samuel

B. Gad

C. Nathan

D. Elijah.

 

(2004:-Q62-69)

30. Which one of the following is a lesson that Christians learn from the story of Joseph in prison?

A. God protects the innocent.

B. God forgives his people.

C. People should have dreams.

D. People should look after their parents.

 

31. God led the people of Israel through the wilderness to the promised land by use of

A. fire and smoke

B. fire and cloud

C. wind and rainfall

D. thunder and lightening

32. Which one among the following activities did Joshua carry out during the Exodus?

A. He led the Israelites out of Egypt.

B. He made the golden calf for the Israelites.

C. He received the ten commandments from God.

D. He led the Israelites in crossing river Jordan.

 

33. Which one of the following is the main reason why the Israelites celebrated the Passover? It reminded them of

A. their going to Egypt

B. God’s saving power in Egypt

C. the Manna they ate in the desert

D. their sufferings in the desert

 

34. David is remembered as a great king of Israel because he

A. killed Goliath

B. married many wives

C. built a palace for himself

D. killed wild animals

 

35. The main reason why King Solomon built the temple in Jerusalem was

A. to unite the people of Israel

B. have a place for offering sacrifices to God

C. have a place for keeping the Ark of the Covenant

D. to fulfil the prophecy of Nathan

36. Who among the following people was a priest when Samuel was called by God?

A. Elkana.

B. Elijah.

C. Aaron.

D. Eli.

 

37. Who among the following prophets refers to the Messiah. as “the Prince of Peace”?

A. Isaiah.

B. Jeremiah.

C. Amos.

D. Hosea.

 

(Q 62-69) 2005

38. Who among the following people was commanded by God to build an ark?

A. Noah.

B. Laban.

C. Isaac.

D. Joshua.

 

39. Which one of the following promises was made by God to Abraham during his call? He was promised that he would
A. become a priest

B. be blessed

C. rule forever

D. have a strong kingdom.

40. God said “I am who I am” (Exodus 3:14). These words were spoken to Moses when he was

A. crossing the Red Sea

B. given the Ten Commandments

C. looking after his father-in-law’s sheep

D. performing miracles in Egypt.

 

41. The main lesson the Israelites learnt about God when He gave them manna during the Exodus is that He is

A. everlasting

B. humble

C. holy

D. caring.

 

42. Moses poured blood on the Israelites during the Covenant at Mount Sinai because he wanted them to

A. be loyal to God

B. defeat their enemies

C. go to Canaan

D . forget about Egypt.

 

43. Who among the following people was a judge in Israel?
A. Ruth.

B. Hannah.

C. Deborah.

D. Zipporah.

 

44. Who among the following kings of Israel was a musician?

A. Saul.

B. David.

C. Ahaz.

D. Jeroboam.

 

45. The prophet who showed faith in God at Mount Carmel is
A. Hosea

B. Elisha

C. Amos

D. Elijah.

 

(Q62-69) 2006

46. Who among the following people was asked by God to give his son as a sacrifice?

A. Abraham.

B. Noah.

C. Moses.

D. Jacob.

 

47. From the incident when Joseph welcomed his brothers in Egypt Christians learn that they should be

A. courageous

B. obedient

C. kind

D. repentant.

 

48. The Jews celebrate the Passover feast to remember when

A. they were given the ten commandments

B. Moses was called by God

C. Noah built the Ark

D. they were delivered from Egypt.

 

49. Which one of the following commandments shows respect for human life?
A. “Do not steal.”

B. “Do not commit adultery.”

C. “Do not accuse anyone falsely.”

D. “Do not murder.”

 

50. Who among the following kings of Israel took Naboth’s vineyard?

A. Saul.

B. Ahab.

C. David.

D. Jeroboam.

51. From the story of King Solomon the best gift one can ask God for is
A. wisdom

B. riches

C. protection

D. courage.

 

52. Which one of the following statements is true about the teaching of Jeremiah on the New Covenant?
A. The laws will be written on people’s hearts.

B. The Israelites will serve God as priests.

C. God will punish children for the sins of their parents.
D. The Israelites will be given an everlasting kingdom.

53. Who among the following prophets foretold that the Messiah would be born in the town of Bethlehem?
A. Amos.

B. Micah.

C. Daniel.

D. Malachi.
(Q62-69) 2007

54. From the call of Abraham, Christians learn that they should
A. go to strange lands to preach the good news

B. travel in groups when going on a journey

C. believe in dreams

D. live in peace.

 

55. The father of Esau and Jacob was

A. Laban

B. Joseph

C. Noah

D. Isaac.

 

56. Moses was not willing to go back to Egypt when he was sent by God mainly because
A. the Israelites did not know him

B. he was afraid of the Egyptian Pharaoh

C. his family was in Midian

D. he was not good in speaking.

 

57. Which one of the following commandments teaches Christians to be satisfied with what they have?
A. Respect your father and mother.

B. Do not accuse anyone falsely.

C. Keep the Sabbath day holy.

D. Do not desire your neighbours’ property.

 

58. Which one of the following was an achievement of King David?
A. Writing the first books of the Bible.

B. Bringing the Ark of the covenant to Jerusalem.

C. Fighting against idol worship in Israel.

D. Judging cases in Israel.

 

59. “I inherited the vineyard from my ancestors”

Naboth replied. “The Lord forbid that I should let you have it” (I Kings 21:3).

From this incident of King

Ahab and Naboth, Christians learn that they should

A. work as a team

B. enjoy the fruits of their labour

C. look after their gardens

D. be fair in their dealings.

 

60. Prophet Elisha told the Shunamite woman that she was going to have a son because she

A. had asked for a miracle

B. was a hardworking woman

C. was a kind person

D. was a famous person.

 

61. Which one of the following was a prophecy of Isaiah about the Messiah? He would be

A. born of a virgin

B. born in Jerusalem

C. called a Nazarine

D. called out of Egypt.

 

(Q62-69) 2008

62. God punished the people during the time of Noah by sending
A. flood

B. fire

C. wind

D. earthquake.

 

63. The main lesson Christians learn from the call of Abraham by God is that they should be
A. tolerant

B. obedient

C. caring

D. merciful.

 

64. During the Passover night, the Israelites were to eat

bitter herbs to show

A. their painful life in Egypt

B. that they were God’s people

C. that God was with them

D. their readiness to leave Egypt.

 

65. A problem faced by the Israelites during the exodus was lack of

A. clothing

B. leaders

C. water

D. livestock.

 

 

66. Which one of the following qualities of leadership was
mainly shown by David when he fought Goliath?

A. Honesty.

B. Humility.

C. Faithfulness.

D. Courage.

 

67. Which one of the following sins was committed by King Solomon? He

A. took other people’s property

B. gave the Israelites land to foreigners

C. killed the prophets of God

D. married foreign wives.

 

68. Which one of the following miracles was performed by both prophet Elijah and Elisha?

A. Raising the son of the Shunammite woman.

B. Purification of the water.

C. Multiplication of oil.

D. Bringing fire from heaven

 

69. Jeremiah refused to accept the call to become a prophet of God because he felt he was

A. too young

B. too busy

C. physically weak

D. a sinful man.

 

(Q62-69) 2009

70. The main reason why Noah built an ark was to make him be able to
A. fulfill God’s wish

B. Worship God there

C. keep the animals

D. hide his family.

71. “Leave your country, your relatives and your father’s home and go to the land that I am going to show you.” (Genesis 12:1)

God spoke these words to

A. Abram

B. Joseph

C. Jacob

D. Elisha

72. Which one of the following happenings took place during the night marking the start of the Exodus?

A. Moses killed an Egyptian.

B. All first born sons of the Egyptians died.

C. Water in river Nile turned into blood.

D. Frogs filled the land of Egypt.

 

73. Which of the following commandments was broken by the Israelites when they worshipped the golden bull calf at Mount Sinai?

A. ‘Do not commit adultery.’

B. ‘Do not desire another person’s property.’

C. ‘Do not make for yourselves image.’

D. ‘Do not accuse anyone falsely.’

 

74. Who among the following people was anointed as the first King of Israel?

A. Saul

B. David

C. Solomon.

D. Ahab.

75. Jerusalem was considered a Jewish religious centre of worship because
A. many people lived there

B. it was built on a hill

C. it was in the middle of the kingdom

D. it had the Ark of the Covenant.

 

76. Who among the following couples were the parents of prophet Samuel?

A. Sarah and Abraham.

B. Rebecca and Isaac.

C. Hannah and Elkanah.

D. Ruth and Boaz.

 

78. But the Lord said to me, “Do not say you are too young, but go to the people I send you to…..” (Jeremiah 1:7)

The main lesson Christians learn from this is that

A. They should obey God’s command

B. They should be concerned about others

C. God cares for his people

D. God wants them to be holy.

 

(Q61-69) 2010

79. Which one of the following actions by Adam shows that he had power over the creation?

A. Tilling the land.

B. Naming the animals.

C. Marrying Eve

D. Eating the fruits.

 

80. The main reason why God asked Noah to build the ark was to

A. save Noah’s family.

B. store foodstuffs

C. separate the sinners from the righteous

D. assist him to move to the mountain.

 

81. The main virtue that the children of Israel were required to have when crossing the Red Sea was

A. honesty

B. holiness

C. tolerance

D. obedience.

82. Who among the following people is the father of faith?

A. Jacob.

B. Abraham.

C. Isaac.

D. Joseph.

 

83. When the Israelites went to receive the ten

commandment, God’s presence was shown through

A. fire

B. flaming torch

C. earthquake

D. strong wind.

 

84. Who among the following Kings of Israel annoyed God when he took Uriah’s wife?

A. Rehoboam.

B. Jeroboam.

C. David.

D. Solomon.

 

85. The main lesson Christians learn from the story of King Ahab and Naboth is that

A. one should be truthful.

B. land belongs to the community.

C. one should control his desires.

D. one should obey the laws of the land.

 

86. When David was anointed by Prophet Samuel he was

A. Going to fight with Goliath.

B. Taking food for his brothers.

C. Playing music for King Saul.

D. Herding the father’s sheep.

 

87. The prophet who was called by God when still young was

A. Jeremiah

B. Isaiah

C. Hosea

D. Amos.

 

JESUS
AND THE NEW TESTAMENT

1. (Q70-77) 2000

D. shepherd.

72. The main message of John the Baptist to the people was to A. become his disciples
B. repent their sins

C. love one another

D. feed one another.

73. ‘Worship the Lord your God and serve only him’ (Luke 4:8). These words were said by Jesus during his
A. temptation

B. baptism

C. crucifixion

D. transfiguration.

74. The main lesson Christians learn from the miracle of the feeding of the five thousand is to be
A. generous

B. courageous

C. obedient

D. honest.

75. Which one of the following parables of Jesus teaches about treating neighbours well? The parable of the

70. Which one of the following happenings took place when Jesus was born?

A. Mary visited Elizabeth.

B. Zechariah began to speak.

C. The angels sang.

A. rich fool.

B. sower.

C. sheep.

D. Samaritan.

D. There was an earthquake.

71. Joseph the husband of Mary worked as a

A. carpenter

B. fisherman

C. preacher

K.C.P.E REVISION

76. Who among the following disciples of Jesus broke the law of love because of his greed for money?
A. Peter.

B. John.

C. Judas.

D. James.
506

77. ‘Remember me, Jesus, when you come as King’

(Luke 23:42). These words were spoken by the thief on the
cross because he was

A. innocent
B. patient
C. repentant
D. tolerant.

(Q70-77) 2001

D. look for food when hungry.

 

73. A miracle of Jesus which shows His power over nature is the
A. healing of the paralysed man

B. walking on water

C. healing the blind man

D. raising of Jairus’ daughter.

70. When Jesus was born, the angel appeared to

the shepherds to

A. help them guard animals

B. tell them the good news

C. warn them about Herod

D. guide them to Bethlehem.

 

71. ‘Didn’t you know that I had to be in my father’s house?’ (Luke 2:49). When did Jesus say these words?
A. When he was found by his parents in the temple.
B. When he chased the traders from the temple.

C. During his baptism by John.

D. During his trial before the High Priest.

 

72. The temptation of Jesus in the desert teaches Christians that they should
A. seek earthly riches

B. run away from trials

C. do the will of God

74. Which one of the following is the main reason why Jesus mixed with sinners?
A. He came from a poor family.

B. Sinners were hated by other people.

C. He came to save all people.

D. Sinners were friendly to him.

 

75. Which one of the following actions of Mary and Martha best shows their love for their brother Lazarus?
A. Staying with the mourners.

B. Showing Jesus Lazarus’ grave.

C. Welcoming Jesus to their home.

D. Informing Jesus about Lazarus’ sickness.

 

76. ‘This is my body, which is given for you.’ (Luke 22:19). These words were said by Jesus during the
A. last supper

B. trial before Pilate

C. crucifixion on the cross

D. ascension into heaven.

 

77. Who among the following people helped Jesus to carry the cross?
A. Joseph of Arimathea.

B. Simon of Cyrene.

C. Peter.

D. Nicodemus.

 

(Q70-77) 2002

70. Through which one of the following ways did God tell Joseph to return to Israel with baby Jesus after the death of King Herod?
A. The shepherds.

B. The wisemen.

C. A dream.

D. Zechariah.

 

71. From the incident when Jesus went with his parents to the Temple at the age of twelve the main lesson Christians learn is that
A. parents should discipline their children

B. children should obey their parents

C. children should be concerned about their parents
D. parents should pray for their children.

 

72. When Jesus healed the leper he asked him to

present himself to the priest. This shows that Jesus

A. wanted to please the priest

B. wanted the man to respect him

C. wanted the man to be cured

D. had come to fulfil the law.

 

73. From the incident when Jesus calmed the storm, Christians learn that they should have
A. faith

B. honesty

C. obedience

D. humility.

 

74. The parable of the friend at midnight teaches Christians that they should
A. ask for advice from neighbours

B. be ready to forgive others

C. ask for food from neighbours

D. pray without giving up.

 

75. Which one of the following is a teaching of Jesus on the love of enemies?
A. Pray for those who mistreat you.

B. Curse those who curse you.

C. Love those who love you.

D. Lend and expect back.

 

76. ‘I find no reason to condemn this man.’ (Luke 23:4). Who among the following people said this during

the trial of Jesus?

A. Herod.

B. Pilate.

C. The High Priest.

D. Barabas.

 

77. In which one of the following ways did Jesus prove to the disciples that he had resurrected?
A. Baptising them.

B. Healing the sick.

C. Eating with them.

D. Washing their feet.

 

(Q70-77) 2003

 

1. When Jesus was presented in the temple, prophetess Anna described him as
A. Son of God

B. Lamb of God

C. Prince of peace

D. Savior of the Jews.

 

2. “Do not collect more than is legal” (Luke 3:13).

These words were said by John the Baptist to teach about

A. honesty

B. tolerance

C. humility

D. mercy.

3. The main lesson Christians learn from the parable of the rich man and Lazarus is that
A. the needy should be taken care of

B. those who enjoy now will suffer after death

C. one must suffer in order to enter heaven

D. one should know that this life is temporary.

 

4. Which one of the following actions of Jesus shows that a leader is a servant?
A. Washing the feet of his disciples.

B. Mixing with sinners.

C. Visiting Martha and Mary.

D. Riding on a donkey to Jerusalem.

 

5. Pilate washed his hands after trying Jesus to show that
A. Jesus was king of Jews

B. he was afraid of the Jews

C. he had nothing to do with the case

D. he was obedient to the Jewish laws.

 

6. Which one of the following reasons explains why the tomb of Jesus was protected?
A. The Jewish leaders feared that the body would be stolen.
B. The disciples wanted it to be guarded.

C. The crowd might want to visit the tomb.

D. The disciples feared that wild animals would

eat the body.

 

(Q70-77) 2004

7.. Who among the following people visited baby Jesus?

A. The Samaritans.

B. King Herod.

C. The Pharisees.

D. The Shepherds.

 

8. Who among the following people were in the temple when Jesus was dedicated to God?

A. Zachariah and Elizabeth.

B. Simeon and Anna.

C. Ananias and Saphira.

D. Lazarus and Martha.

 

9. During the baptism of Jesus, a voice was heard from heaven saying that

A. “There is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.”
B. “This is my own dear son with whom I am well pleased.”

C. “He will be called a Nazarene.”

D. “He will be called the wonderful counsellor.”

 

10. Which one of the following parables of Jesus teaches about forgiveness? The parable of the

A. sower

B. good Samaritan

C. prodigal son

D. rich man and Lazarus

11. Jesus performed miracles mainly to show that he had
A. come to conquer evil

B. love for the people

C. power over death

D. power over nature

12. “I promise you that today you will be in paradise with me.” (Luke 23: 43) Jesus said these words when he was

A. in the garden of Gethsamane

B. at the sea of Tiberias

C. on the way to Emmaus

D. on the cross

 

13. After the resurrection of Jesus, he told his disciples to wait in Jerusalem for the Holy Spirit who would help them to
A. become wealthy

B. conquer the Roman Empire

C. serve in the Jewish council

D. preach the good news

 

14. The resurrection of Jesus teaches Christians to be

A. tolerant

B. obedient

C. hopeful

D. Honest

 

(Q70-77) 2005
15. Which one of the following reasons best explains why angel Gabriel announced that Mary’s son was to be

holy? He was to

A. be great

B. rule forever

C. be conceived by the Holy Spirit

D. be born in Bethlehem.

 

16. King Herod wanted to know the place baby Jesus was born in order to go and

A. kill him

B. worship him

C. offer him gifts

D. meet his parents.

 

17. Which one of the following statements is a teaching of Jesus from the sermon on the Mount?
A. Let the children come to me.

B. Love your enemies and pray for them

C. You must be born of water and spirit.

D. Sell your property and have riches in heaven.

 

18. The Pharisees and the Scribes condemned Jesus for healing on the Sabbath because they thought that?
A. he was breaking the law

B. he was the son of a carpenter

C. the sick were sinners

D. he was seeking popularity.

 

19. Which one of the following parables of Jesus teaches about prayer? The parable of the

A prodigal son

B. great banquet

C. mustard seed

D. friend at midnight.

 

20. After Jesus healed the ten lepers, the one who went back to thank him was a
A. Jew

B. Cananite

C. Samaritan

D. Syrian.

 

21. Jesus asked his disciples to pray at the Mount of Olives because he wanted them to

A. stay awake

B. avoid falling into temptations

C. save him from his enemies

D. go with him to Pilate.

 

22. Who among the following people prepared the body of Jesus for burial?

A. Joseph of Arimathea.

B. Symon of Cyrene.

C. Cleopas.

D. Andrew.

23. “Unless I see the scars of the nails in his hands, and put my finger on those scars and my hand in his side, I will not believe.” (John 20:25) When did Thomas speak these words?

A. When Jesus was on the cross.

B. During the miraculous catch of fish.

C. During the journey to Emmaus.

D. When the disciples told him they had seen the risen 27. Which one of the following parables of Jesus teaches

Lord.

 

(Q70-78) 2006
24. After Angel Gabriel told Zechariah that his wife would bear him a son, Zechariah was unable to speak because he
A. was so shocked to hear the news

B. did not want anybody to know the message given
C. had been told not to tell anyone else

D. did not believe in the message.

 

25. Herod wanted to kill Jesus when he was born because he feared that Jesus would
A. stop people from paying taxes

B. convert the Jews to another religion

C. take over as ruler of the Jews

 

D. stop people from going to the synagogues.

26. “So when you give something to a needy person, do not make a big show of it” (Matthew 6: 2). Which one of the following values do Christians learn from this teaching?
A. Humility.

B. Patience.

C. Loyalty.

D. Obedience.

Christians to take care of people with special needs? The parable of the
A. sower

B. good Samaritan

C. talents

D. mustard seed.

 

28. The lesson Christians learn from the healing of the ten lepers is that they should
A. seek God in prayer

B. be righteous in their daily dealings

C. try to be happy in life

D. practise the art of thankfulness.

 

29. When Zacchaeus said that he would give half of his belongings to the poor it showed that he
A. had acquired a lot of wealth

B. had always wanted to help the needy

C. was sorry for having acquired wealth wrongly

D. wanted people to think that he was a good person.

30. In which one of the following occasions did Jesus identify the disciple who was going to betray him?
A. At the trial before Pilate.

B. During the last supper.

C. During the transfiguration.

D. When he was cleansing the temple.

 

31. The action of Jesus which teaches Christians that

there is life after death is

A. feeding the hungry

B. raising of Lazarus

C. healing the sick

D. driving out demons.

 

(Q70-77) 2007
32. The reason why Joseph and Mary went to Bethlehem the night Jesus was born is because they wanted to

A. meet their parents

B. meet king Herod

C. register in their home town

D. look for a place to deliver the baby.

talents is to

A. help their workmates

B. use their abilities well

C. love one another

D. get advice from the leaders.

 

36. Which one of the following miracles of Jesus shows that he was a universal saviour?

A. The healing of the centurion’s servant.

B. The healing of the blind Bartimaeus.

C. The cure of the paralysed man.

D. The feeding of the five thousand.

C. accepted to stay with them

D. explained to them the written word.

 

(Q70-77) 2008
40.70. Which one of the following activities is correctly matched with the people who performed it during the early life of Jesus?

Activity People

A. Visiting Elizabeth – Anna

B. Following a star – Simeon

C. Burning incense – Zechariah

D. Looking after the flock – wise men

 

71. Joseph and Mary took baby Jesus to Egypt because

A. the Pharaoh wanted to see him.

B. they were going for registration.

C. parents had to take their children there.

D. Herod wanted to kill him.

 

41. Which one of the following parables of Jesus encourages Christians to bring members back to church? The parable of the

A. good Samaritan

B. lost coin

C. sower

D. rich man and Lazarus.

 

42. “The son of man is the Lord of the Sabbath. ” (Luke 6:5).

Those words were spoken by Jesus when

A. he calmed the storm

B. he healed a paralysed man

C. his disciples picked ears of corn

D. he healed the woman with the flow of blood.

 

43. The main lesson Christians learn from the healing of the man with demons is that Jesus

A. forgives sins

B. is a provider

C. has power over nature

D. has power over evil.

 

44. The main lesson Christians learn from the teaching of Jesus on wealth is that it should be

A. used for personal requirements

B. shared with the needy

C. sold out to others

D. used to make profits.

 

45. Which one of the following events took place when Jesus was at the garden of Gethsemane? Jesus was
A. transfigured

B. arrested

C. lifted up to heaven

D. crucified on the Cross.

 

46. A lesson Christians learn about Jesus from Cleopas and his friend on their way to Emmaus is that Jesus

A. is the bread of life

B. will judge the world

K.C.P.E REVISION 514

C. brings salvation to people

D. is the light of the world.

 

(Q70-77) 2009
47. Which one of the following happenings took place on the eighth day after Jesus was born?

A. The angel appeared to Mary.

B. Jesus was circumcised.

C. The angel appeared to the shepherds.

D. Jesus was dedicated.

48. From the incident when King Herod failed to kill baby Jesus, Christians learn that

A. God loves honest people

B. they should be wise in their actions

C. God protects his people

D. they should forgive others.

 

49. Jesus was baptized in the river Jordan. The main
lesson Christians learn from this is to

A. obey the church leaders

B. identify with their church

C. keep away from sin

D. prepare for the work of God.

50. Which one of the following statements from the New Testament is a beatitude?
A. “The Lord is with you and has greatly blessed you.”

B. “Happy are those who believe without seeing me.”
C. “How happy you are to believe the Lord’s message.”

D. “Happy are those who are merciful to others, God will be merciful to them.”

51. The parable of the widow and the judge teaches Christians to
A. keep on praying

B. look for the lost

C. live in joy

D. be repentant.

 

52. The main lesson Christians learn from the miracle of the raising of Lazarus is to

A. look for help

B. have courage

C. be thankful

D. have faith.

 

53. The army officer who saw Jesus dying on the cross described him as
A. kind person

B. powerful man

C. humble person

D. good man.

54. The two disciples whom Jesus met after his resurrection were on their way to

A. Emmaus

B. Jerusalem

C. Jericho

D. Bethlehem.

K.C.P.E REVISION 515

(Q70-77) 2010
55. The main lesson Christians learn from the announcement of the births of John and Jesus is that they should

A. be ready to do God’s work

B. Trust in God’s power

C. be humble before God

D. be prayerful

 

56. King Herod wanted to kill baby Jesus because A Jesus was born in Bethlehem
B. Jesus was born in a poor family

C. he feared that Jesus would become famous

D. Jesus crime from the house of David.

 

57. Which one of the following parables of Jesus teaches on the value of the Kingdom of God? The parable of the

A. mustard seed

B. grest feast

C. coin

D. courageous

 

58. The story of the rich man and Lazarus teaches Christians to be

A. caring

B. holy

C. faithful

D. courageous.

A. calming the storm

B. raising the dead

C. feeding the five thousand

D. changing water into wine.

 

90. The main reason why the Jewish people opposed Jesus is because he

A. healed on a Sabbath

B. claimed to be the Messiah

C. mixed with sinners

D. ate with unclean hands.

 

91. “Unless I see the scars of the nails in his hands and put my fingers on those scars and my hands on his side, 1 will not believe” (John 20:25) These words were spoken by Thomas when Jesus

A. was on the cross

B. shared a meal with the disciples

C. appeared to the disciples

D. had ascended into heaven.

 

THE EARLY CHURCH AND THE
CHRISTIAN COMMUNITY

(Q78-81) 2000

 

59. Which one of the following miracles of Jesus was performed by Peter?

78. Who among the following people died because of cheating the apostles?
A. Stephen.

B. Ananias.

C. Cornelius.

D. Philip.

79. Paul was called by God mainly to

A. preach the gospel to the Gentiles

B. go to Damascus for baptism

C. stop persecuting Christians

D. heal the sick.

80. Which one of the following statements from the Apostles’ Creed teaches that Jesus is the Son of God? A. Descended into hell.
B. Suffered under Pontius Pilate.

C. Conceived by the Holy Spirit.

D. Crucified, died and was buried.

81. Which one of the following activities by the early Christians shows a fruit of the Holy Spirit?
A. Preached the gospel.

B. Lived in joy.

C. Performed miracles.

D. Spoke in tongues.

Q90,2000

The main reason why Christian missionaries came to Kenya was to
A. introduce western education

B. stop slave trade

C. spread the gospel

D. stop female circumcision

(Q78-79) 2001

On the day of Pentecost the Holy Spirit came down in the form of
A. a cloud

B. a dove

C. fire

D. water.

 

79. Who among the following people was the first Christian to be killed because of his faith?
A. Philip.

B. Paul.

C. James.

D. Stephen

Q90,2001

Which one of the following was the work of the early Christian missionaries in Kenya?
A. Building schools.

B. Appointing local rulers.

C. Setting boundaries for colonies.

D. Building the railway.

 

(Q78-80) 2002

78. ‘Jesus Christ makes you well. Get up and make you bed’. At once Aenas got up. (Acts of the Apostle 9:34) These words were spoken by Peter when he was in
A. Joppa

B. Lydda

C. Jerusalem

D. Antioch.

 

79. Who among the following people prayed for those who persecuted him?
A. Peter.

B. Thomas.

C. Stephen.

D. Andrew.

 

80. Who among the following people in the New Testament is referred to as the ‘Apostle to the Gentiles’?
A. James.

B. Matthew.

C. Paul.

D. John.

 

Q90,2002

The first mission school in Kenya was started in Rabai mainly because the Africans
A. needed to read the Bible

B. wanted to read in English

C. needed white collar jobs

D. wanted to trade.

 

(Q77-8O) 2003
1. Which one of the following activities by the early church best shows how their members lived in

unity?

A. Singing praises.

B. Baptising one another.

C. Reciting the Scriptures.

D. Sharing food.

2. Who among the following people offered money

to Peter and John so as to receive the Holy Spirit?

A. Joseph of Cyprus.

B. Simon of Samaria.

C. Cleopas.

D. James.

 

3. Who among following people baptised the Ethiopian eunuch?
A. Stephen.

B. Paul.

C. Philip.

D. Peter.

 

4. According to Saint Paul’s teaching a Christian should love his wife as much as
A. Christ loves the Church

B. he loves his friends

C. his wife loves him

D. Christ loves the world.

 

5. Which one of the following activities by Christians today is an example of the gifts of the Holy Spirit?
A. Reading the Bible.
B. Collecting offerings.

C. Cleaning the church.
D. Singing in the choir. Q85,2003

6. Heal the sick, bring the dead back to life, heal those who suffer from dreaded diseases …..

C. Freretown.

D. Kaimosi.

 

Q90,2004

” (Matthew 10:8). The early Christian missionaries to Kenya obeyed this command by
A. training teachers

B. teaching people hygiene

C. building the railway

D. training catechists. Q90,2003

7. Which one of the following is a reason why Stephen was stoned to death? He

A. wanted to lead a rebellion

B. refused to deny Jesus

C. refused to pay taxes

D. worked on the Sabbath day Q78,2004

10. Paul the apostle advises Christians to obey those in authority because
A. they are powerful

B. their rule is perfect

C. they are chosen by God

D. they are well to do.

Q79,2005

11. Which one of the following activities did Johann Ludwig Krapf involve himself in as a missionary in Kenya?

A. Building railway stations.

B. Appointing local chiefs.

C. Building mission stations.

 

8. Three of the following activities in the early church demonstrated unity among the believers. Which one does not?

D. Planting cash crops.

Q90,2005

A. Meeting in the temple for worship.

B. Helping the needy.

C. Breaking of the bread.

D. Speaking in tongues.

Q80,2004

9. Which one of the following mission stations in Kenya was started as a colony for freed slaves?
A. Maseno.

B. Kikuyu.

(Q78-81) 2006

12. Which one of the following beliefs about God is found in the Apostles Creed? He is
A. just

B. holy

C. loving

D. almighty.

 

13. Who among the following people was raised by Peter from the dead?

A. Tabitha.

B. Lydia.

C. Priscilla.

D. Aquilla.

 

14. The main lesson to be learnt from the story of Ananias and Sapphira is that Christians should

A. give out their property for sale

B. be honest in all that they do

C. punish those who tell lies

D. repent when they sin.

 

15. Which one of the following is a gift of the Holy Spirit?

A. Goodness.

B. Gentleness.

C. Self-control.

D. Prophecy.

 

16. Which one of the following activities best shows that Christians are disciples of Jesus Christ?

A. Laying of hands.

B. Giving offerings.

C. Speaking in tongues.

D. Preaching the gospel.

Q85,2006

 

(Q78-81) 2007

17. 78. From the Apostle’s creed we learn that God is

A. a saviour

B. a judge

C. our father

D. our Lord

 

18. Which one of the following happenings took place on the day of Pentecost?

A. Jesus ascended into heaven. B The rocks split apart.
C. A lame man was healed.

D. People spoke in many languages.

 

19. Which one of the following is a gift of the Holy Spirit

A. Wisdom.

B. Goodness.

C. Gentleness.

D. Humility.

 

20. The early Christians chose the seven deacons because they wanted them to

A. distribute food among the widows

B. help Christians sell their property

C. witness to the believers in prison

D. stop the persecution of believers

 

(Q78-81) 2008

21. On the day of Pentecost people spoke in many languages because they
A. were drunk

B. were filled with the Holy Spirit

C. were confused

D. came from different places.

22 Which one of the following statements is true about Ananias and Sapphira? They
A. were stoned to death

B. lived in Nazareth

C. performed miracles

D. were dishonest.

23. During the time of the early church, the apostles were assisted to share money among the believers by

A. pastors

B. priests

C. bishops

D. deacons.

 

24. Which one of the following acts of worship was done by Paul and Silas when they were in prison? They

A. took the Holy communion

B. sang hymns

C. repented their sins

D. read scriptures.

 

(Q78-81) 2009

26. Who among the following disciples was chosen to replace Judas as an apostle of Christ?

A. Matthias.

B. Barnabas.

C. Simeon of Cyrene

D. Joseph of Arimathea.

 

27. “I see heaven opened and the Son of Man standing at the right side of God.”

(Acts 7:56). These words were spoken by Stephen when he was
A. serving food

B. helping widows

C. performing miracles

D. preaching to the people.

 

28.. What was Saul going to do in Damascus when he was blinded by a strong light?
A. meet with Ananias

B. persecute the believers

C. be baptised

D. meet with the gentiles.

 

(Q77-81) 2010

 

25. Which one of the following events took place on the day of Pentecost?
A. The curtain of the Temple was torn in two.

B. The believers spoke in other languages.

C. Jesus was taken up to heaven

D. Saul became an apostle of Jesus.

29. Which one of the following took place on the day of Pentecost?

A. The believers spoke in different languages.

B. A crippled person was healed.

C. The disciples saw the risen Christ.

D. The disciples drunk wine.

30. Stephen met his death through being

A. burnt

B. crucified

C. beheaded

D. stoned.

 

31. Which one of the following events took place as Paul was on the way to Damascus?

A. Ananias came to baptize him.

B. A light from heaven struck him.

C. He lost the letters he had.

D. He spoke strange languages.

RELIGIOUS HERITAGE

(Q82-85) 2000
82. In some traditional African communities people worshipped under a tree because it
A. gave them fruits

B. was God’s dwelling place

C. protected them from the wind

D. was beautiful.

83. Which one of the following traditional African practices is found in Christianity?

32. Lydia welcomed the needy in her home. The fruit of the holy spirit which she showed is

A. peace

B. patience

C. joy

A. Making libation.

B. Tattooing of the body.

C. Marrying many wives.

D. Giving of new names.

D. kindness

84. Which one of the following rituals in traditional African communities was mainly carried out by a priest?

33. Who among the following, people were sent to
take money to help the believers in Judea?

A. Phillip and Mathew.

B. Andrew and Mathias.

C. Barnabas and Saul.

A. Burying the afterbirth.

B. Shaving the hair.

C. Circumcising.

D. Offering sacrifices.

D. Silas and James

 

 

AFRICAN TRADITIONAL

85. In some traditional African communities shedding of blood during circumcision showed that the initiates were
A. strong and healthy

B. united with the ancestors

C. ready to lead others in prayer

D. separated from the community.

(Q80-84) 2001
80. Which one of the following beliefs about God is found in both Christianity and traditional African communities?
A. God became man.

B. God raises the dead.

C. God is everywhere.

D. God is three in one.

 

81. Which one of the following acts were performed by elders in traditional African communities during worship?
A. Sacrificing animals.

B. Reciting the creed.

C. Baptising members.

D. Serving the Holy Communion.

 

82. Which one of the following is the best reason why people in traditional African communities were expected to marry?
A. To be respected.

B. To have a partner.

C. To get children.

D. To be accepted.

 

83. In traditional African communities ancestors were respected mainly because they
A. appeared to the living in a dream

B. united the living and the dead

C. reminded people of the past

D. were the dead relatives.

 

84. Who among the following people is found in Christianity and traditional African communities?
A. Herbalist.

B. Rainmaker.

C. Diviner.

D. Prophet.

 

(Q81-84) 2002
81. Which one of the following statements is true

about traditional African religion and Christianity?

A. The followers pray in sacred places.

B. The followers offer animal sacrifices to the ancestors.
C. Both religions have a founder.

D. Both religions have a holy book.

 

82. In which one of the following ways did people in traditional African society give thanks to God for the blessings?
A. Giving offerings.

B. Visiting others.

C. Sharing land with foreigners.

D. Shaking hands.

83. Which one of the following is a rite of passage in traditional African society?
A. Baptism.

B. Confirmation.

C. Pregnancy.

D. Marriage.

 

84. In some traditional African societies boys and girls were allowed to mix freely when
A. working

B. feasting

C. dancing

D. playing.

 

(Q81-84) 2003

1. In traditional African communities people showed that God is holy mainly by

A. punishing offenders

B. worshipping him

C. telling stories about him

D. obeying the religious specialists.

 

2. Which one of the following teachings from the creation stories is found in both Christianity and traditional African Communities? Human beings
A. were created on the sixth day

B. were created in the image of God

C. should hike care of creation

D. should offer sacrifices to God.

3. When people were wealthy in traditional African societies the main explanation given was that they

were

A. blessed by God

B. hardworking

C. generous

D. wise.

 

4. The main reason why people shared things in traditional African communities was because they

wanted to

A. become famous

B. show concern

C. show unity

D. obey the ancestors

 

(Q81-84) 2004

5.. During worship, offerings are given in both

Christianity and traditional African communities as a way of showing

A. thanksgiving

B. mercy

C. patience

D. justice

 

6. The main virtue expected of the youth after initiation in traditional African communities is

A. responsibility

B. honesty

C. obedience

D. humility

 

7. Which one of the following marriage practices is found both in Christianity and traditional African communities?

A. Polygamy.

B. Divorce.

C. Wedding.

D. Wife inheritance.

 

 

 

8. Which one of the following practices is carried

in traditional African communities to remember the dead?

A. Removal of teeth.

B. Drinking of beer.

C. Tatooing of bodies.

D. Naming of children

 

(Q81-84) 2005

9. Which one of the following acts was performed by Priests during worship in traditional African communities?
A. Making sacrifices .

B. Baptising people.

C. Confirming people.

D. Giving Holy Communion.

 

10. In traditional African communities, initiation ceremonies were held to show that the
A. community enjoyed leisure

B. community was wealthy

C. New Year had begun

D. young had become adults.

 

11. The living dead in traditional African communities were mainly remembered through

A. holding dancing ceremonies

B. composing songs for them

C. pouring libation

D. lighting fire.

 

12. Which one of the following rituals was performed when a baby was born in traditional African communities?

A. Paying dowry.

B. Tatooing the body.

C. Shaving the hair.

D. Baptising the baby.

 

(Q82-84) 2006
13. In traditional African communities people reconciled with God mainly by

A. naming children after the dead

B. respecting the aged

C. making sacrifices

D. visiting shrines.

 

14. Which one of the following marriage practices is found in both Christianity and traditional African communities?

A. Giving gifts.

B. Tattooing the body.

C. Going to church.

D. Making libation.

15. Which one of the following is the main reason why traditional African communities are against abortion?
It

A. may lead to infertility

B. is a destruction of life

C. annoys the ancestors

D. may cause hatred in the family.

 

(Q82-85) 2007
16.. In some traditional African communities people worship in a cave because it
A. is a place to hide

B. is God’s dwelling place

C. protects them from danger

D. is a quiet place.

A. Prayers are offered for the couple.

B. A certificate is given to the couple.

C. Sacrifices are made to thank God.

D. Holy communion is given to the couple.

 

18. In traditional African communities kinship ties are important mainly because they

A. make relatives stay together

B. give guidance in matters of the family

C. make clan members to respect one another

D. give relatives a sense of belonging.

 

19. The youth in traditional African societies are taught moral values by
A. seers

B. peers

C. elders

D. warriors.

 

(Q82-84) 2008
20. Which one of the following beliefs about God is found in both traditional African communities and in the Apostles’ Creed? God
A. is the creator

B. is three in one

C. lives in caves

D. is the father of Jesus.

17. Which one of the following wedding practices is found
in both Christian and traditional African communities? 21. Gifts are given to a couple during the wedding in

both traditional African communities and Christianity 25. In traditional African communities children are told
mainly to

A. make them feel important

B. show that the two are special

C. ensure they have property in their home

D. make them responsible.

 

22. Who among the following people were not specialist in traditional African communities?

A. Rainmakers.

B. Warriors.

C. Prophets.

D. Diviners.

 

(Q82-84) 2009
23. Which one of the following types of worship is common in both Christianity and traditional African religion?

A. Reading the Bible.

B. Reciting creeds.

C. Giving offerings.

D Celebrating the Lord’s supper.

 

24. Three of the following activities in traditional African

communities show that there is life after death. Which one does not?

A. Pouring libations.

B. Singing and dancing.

C. Slaughtering animals.

D. Giving bride price.

stories mainly to

A. teach them moral values

B. entertain them

C. keep them busy

D. pass on community history.

 

(Q82-84) 2010
26.. In some traditional African communities people are reconciled with the ancestors through

A. naming of children

B. protecting the aged

C. paying of dowry

D. drinking beer.

 

27. The main reason why sex before marriage is discouraged in both Christianity and traditional African communities is because it

A. encourages prostitution

B. is considered holy

C. can lead to diseases

D. can lead to unwanted children.

 

28. Which one of the following is the main role of grandparents in the bringing up of children in traditional African communities?
A. Passing on the moral values.

B. Correcting the wrong doers.

C. Providing food for them.

 

CONTEMPORARY CHRISTIAN LIVING
(Q86-89) 2000

86. Which one of the following activities best promotes love among Christians?
A. Going to church.

B. Praying with others.

C. Caring for the hungry.

D. Visiting one another.

87. Your classmate James takes away your lunch and eats it. As a Christian what would you do?
A. Ask him to pay for it.

B. Tell him not to do it again.
C. Report him to the class prefect.

D. Announce it to the class.

88. John, a standard eight pupil who comes from a rich family ; despises other members of the class. As a Christian the best advice you would give him is that he should be
A. trustworthy

B. brave

C. humble

D. a peace maker.

89. Rose, a standard six pupil finds out that her friend Jane has not been doing her morning duties. As a Christian what should Rose do about it?
A. Report her to the class teacher.

B. Report her to the parents.

C. Tell her to be responsible.

D. Do the work for her.

 

(Q85-89) 2001

85. According to Christian teaching the greatest fruit of the Holy Spirit is
A. joy

B. love

C. hope

D. faith.

 

86. Sarah is sent to buy a kilogram of sugar. The shop keeper gives her more change. As a Christian, Sarah should
A. return it to the shopkeeper

B. keep quiet about it

C. use it to buy sweets

D. take it home.

 

87. Your deskmate Simon, has told you that he is suffering from AIDS As a Christian, which one the following is the best action to take?
A. Report the matter to the class teacher.

B. Change your sitting place.

C. Advise him to seek medical help.

D. Inform your classmates about it.

 

88. Peter, who is a rich man is thinking of how to use

K.C.P.E REVISION 528

his extra money. As a Christian, what advice would you give him?
A. Go for trips abroad.

B. Pay school fees for orphans.

C. Build a bigger house for his family.

D. Buy a farm for his family.

 

89. Jane, a standard eight pupil has been asked by her class teacher to go to school on the day of worship. As a Christian, the best advice you would give Jane is

A. obey the class teacher

B. talk to the church leader

C. transfer to another school

D. go to church.

 

(Q85-89) 2002

85. The main reason why Christians should obey their leaders is because they
A. are God’s representatives on earth

B. are chosen to rule with justice

C. keep peace in the community

D. ask people to do good.

 

86. Which one of the following activities would best promote good relationship between Christian parents and their children?
A. children asking advice from their parents

B. children being allowed to visit their relatives

C. parents being role models to their children

D. parents paying fees for their children.

 

87. Your classmate Jane, has refused to lend you a pen. As a Christian, what action would you take?
A. Ask the class teacher to talk to her.

B. Report her to the class prefect.

C. Tell her to help others.

D. Take the pen from her.

 

88. David played the harp for King Saul. (1 Samuel 16:23). This teaches Christians that leisure time should best be used for
A. helping others

B. enjoying oneself

C. developing new skills

D. visiting places.

 

89. Your friend Peter, does not want to wash dishes at home because he says that it is a dirty job. As a Christian, what advice would you give him? I would advise him to
A. ask his parents to employ a house help

B. understand that such work is good

C. move out of the home

D. tell his uncle to talk to his parents.

 

(Q86-89) 2003

1. As a Christian which one of the following is the

best advice to give to a person living with HIV/AIDS?
A. Avoid sitting close to others.

B. Do not greet others.

C. Do not donate blood.

D. Avoid sharing food.

 

2. Agnes, a Standard Seven pupil finds two Standard Three pupils fighting on their way home. As Christian, what action should Agnes take?
A. Stop them from fighting.

B. Pass and leave them fighting.

C. Report the matter to the teacher.

D. Tell them to go home.

 

3. Christopher, your friend is given money to buy

a pen but he plans to buy sweets instead. As a Christian what is the best advice to give him? Tell him to
A. buy the sweets and share.

B. buy the sweets another time.

C. share the money with friends.

D. follow the instructions given.

 

4. A Class six teacher has asked the pupils to weed the Garden. John is not willing to do it because he feels it is manual work. As a Christian what is the best advice to give him? Tell him to
A. ask other pupils to help him

B. transfer to another school

C. do the work quickly

D. do the work as well as he can

 

(Q85-89) 2004
5. Which one of the following best shows how Christians are helping to reduce the spread of HIV and Aids?
A. Being role models.

B. Counselling the sick.

C. Teaching on behaviour changes.

D. Providing drugs.

 

6. Mark, your deskmate hides his Christian Religious Education textbook from you. As a Christian what action would you take?

A. Stop talking to him.

B. Report him to the teacher.

C. Teach him about sharing.

D. Move away from the desk.

 

7. Susan has been given a thousand shillings by her. father. As a Christian the best way to spend this money is to
A. organise a birthday party

B. buy food for orphans

C. go and watch a film

D. buy a dress

 

8. According to Christian teaching, leisure time can

best be spent

A. visiting the sick

B. reading story books

C. sleeping

D. playing

9. Tom, your classmate has a dirty uniform which he has refused to wash because he says that it is not his
duty. As a Christian what advice would you give him? Tell him

A. to ask his younger brother to wash it for him.

B. to find money and buy another uniform.

C. to pay a classmate to wash it for him.

D. work is duty and he should be proud of it.

 

(Q85-89) 2005
10. Peninah visits the sick and gives them food. The fruit of the Holy Spirit she demonstrates is

A. patience

B. kindness

C. joy

D. Peace.

 

11. Kelvin, your deskmate has lost your pencil. As a Christian you should

A. demand payment

B. report him to the teacher

C. report him to your parents

D. forgive him.

12. Mary is a rich lady who has poor neighbours. As a Christian, the best advice to give her is that she should
A. give jobs to the needy

B. move to a well to do area

C. donate her money to the church

D. keep her money in a safe place.

 

13. Margaret, a standard Eight pupil finds out that her

classmate is taking alcohol. What is the best action for her to take?
A. Tell the other members of the class.

B. Advise the classmate to see a counseller.

C. Report the matter to the nearest police station.

D. Avoid talking to the classmate.

 

14. Timothy, your deskmate tells you that he hates doing homework. As a Christian, what advice would you give him? Tell him to

A. copy from his friends

B. move to another class

C. ask his parents to do it for him

D. take his duties seriously.

 

(Q86-90) 2006
15. The main reason why Christians condemn prostitution is because it leads to
A. unwanted pregnancies

B. street children

C. misuse of sex

D. break-up of families.

 

16. The best use of leisure by Christian youths would be to

A. visit their friends

B. listen to music

C. help the elderly

D. play games.

 

17. You and your friend James are on duty to sweep the

class room. James has refused to sweep saying that there are workers employed to keep the school clean.
As a Christian what action would you take?

A. Tell him the advantages of learning to do various jobs.
B. Get the workers to come and sweep the classroom.

C. Report James to the class prefect.

D. Discuss James’ behaviour with your friends.

 

18. You have noticed that your friend Philip has been going out of school during class time and you would like him to stop. As a Christian you should
A. go and tell his parents about it

B. show him why it is important to respect school rules
C. threaten to end your relationship with him

when they

A. honour those in authority

B. tolerate those who mistreat them

C. obey rules of the society

D. care for the sick.

 

20. While playing in the school field with your friends

you pick a fifty Kenya shilling note, what would you do?

A. Keep the money to use later.

B. Take the money to the church.

C. Give it to a needy pupil.

D. Find out who the owner is.

 

21. The best way to spend leisure after sitting the Kenya Certificate of Primary Education examination is by
A. helping the old people

B. visiting former classmates

C. listening to Christian music

D. writing letters to former classmates.

 

22. Titus, a Standard Seven pupil does not want to help his brother in cleaning their compound because he feels it is a dirty job.

What advice would you give him? Tell him to

23. The parents of Anne a Standard Eight pupil, want her to get married to an old wealthy man hoping that this would improve their life. As a Christian what is the best action for her to take?

A. Run away from home.

B. Refuse and seek help from her teachers.

C. Report the matter to the local pastor.

D. Refuse and seek help from friends.

 

(Q85-90) 2008
24. The best way a Christian can show respect for authority is by
A. obeying the laws of the country

B. praying for the leaders

C. voting for the leaders

D. taking part in development projects.

 

25. Your desk mate tells you that he has a fifty shilling note which he picked from his friend’s school bag.

As a Christian what advice would you give him? Tell him to
A. buy for you some sweets

B. buy a ball for himself

C. give it to the classmates

D. return it to the owner.

 

26. After assisting his mother with kitchen work, Tom realizes that he has some extra time. As a Christian

the best way to spend it is by

A. visiting his friends

B. visiting an orphan

C. reading story books

D. watching films.

 

27. Nancy, a standard six pupil, is lazy and does not complete her class work. How best would you help her overcome this problem?

A. Tell her to ask her brother to do it for her.

B. Do the work for her.

C. Encourage her to do it.

D. Give her your work to copy.

 

28. Jane, a Standard Eight pupil, is being forced to get married by her parents before she sits for the Kenya Certificate of Primary Education examination. As a Christian what action should she take? She should

A. seek advise from her class teacher

B. keep it to herself

C. tell others about it

D. accept to get married.

 

29. Which one of the following actions does not lead to the spread of HIVAIDS?

A. Donating blood.

B. Sharing injection needles.

C. Sexual immorality.

D. Shaking hands.

K.C.P.E REVISION 533

(Q85-90) 2009

30. Which one of the following practices would best show how a Christian can care for the environment?

A. Burning rubbish.

B. Planting trees.

C. Sweeping the house.

D. Draining stagnant water.

 

31. Which one of the following ways shows the right use of wealth by Christians?

A. Going for tours.

B Saving in the bank.

C. Developing community projects.

D. Buying clothes.

 

32. Which one of the following activities by Christians best
shows how they can use their day of rest?

A. Helping the needy.

B. Singing in the choir.

C. Making new friends.

D. Reading story books.

34. While waiting for the Kenya Certificate of Primary Education examination results, Daniel is asked by an old lady for a hand in marriage. As a Christian the best action to take is to

A. tell his parents about it

B. seek advice from his friends

C. tell the pastor about it

D. tell her he is not ready for it.

 

35. After Agnes, a standard eight pupil, has bought a kilogram of sugar, the shopkeeper refuses to give her the correct change. As a Christian the best action for her to take is to

A. shout for help

B. ask for it

C. cry about it

D. forget about it.

 

(Q85-90) 2010

36. Your classmate Brian tells you he has been taking money from his parents without their permission. As a Christian what action would you take?

A Announce it to the class.

33. Which one of the following is a reason why a Christian should take part in group work? To

A. seek favours

B. become popular

C. make money

D. promote unity.

B. Avoid talking to him.

C. Report the mailer to the parents.

D. Tell him the dangers of such a habit.

37. Your deskmate tells you to go out of school so that you can visit a friend. As a Christian what would you do?

A. Inform the class teacher about it.

B. Tell her to obey the rules.

K.C.P.E REVISION 534

C. Ask advice from the classmates.

D. Keep off her company.

 

38. You have been asked by your church leader to plan for an activity for young people. What is the best leisure activity for them?

A. Playing games.

B. Reading story books.

C. Visiting a children’s home.

D. Watching Christian films.

 

39. Your neighbour tells you she no longer goes to school because she has to do some work for her parents. As a Christian what is the best action for her to take?

A. Ask a friend to help her do the work.

B. Ask her parents to employ a worker.

C. Run a way from home.

D. Report the matter to the chief

 

40. Your friend Daniel is not willing to take up a job he has been offered after sitting for the Kenya Certificate of Primary Education examination because he lacks the needed skills. As a Christian what advice would you give him’?

A. Tell him to give you the job.

B. Tell him seek help from friends.

C. Encourage him to go for training.

D. Encourage him to take up the job.

 

41. Which one of the following is the main reason why Christians are against drug abuse in Kenya? It leads to

A. crime in the community

B. disunity in the family

C. poverty

D. addiction.

 

 

BIBLE LIBRARY

1. Which one of the following New Testament books is a gospel?

A. Hebrews.

B. Galatians.

C. John.

D. James. Q79,2004

K.C.P.E REVISION 535

 

 

 

MATHEMATICS
Time: 2 hours

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2011

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Please read these instructions carefully)

1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question booklet contains 50 questions.
2. Do any necessary rough work in this booklet.

3. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question booklet. HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET
4. Use only an ordinary pencil

5. Make sure that you have written on the answer sheet:
YOUR INDEX NUMBER YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

 

6. By drawing a dark line inside the correct numbered boxes mark your full Index Number (i.e. School Code Number and the three-figure Candidate’s Number) in the grid near the top of the answer sheet.
7. Do not make any marks outside the boxes.

8. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and do not fold it.

9. For each of the questions 1-50 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each case only ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.
10. On the answer sheet the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a dark line inside the box in which the letter you have chosen is written.
Example

In the Question Booklet:

11 What is the value of 6(24-18)+ 6 ×4
6

A. 30

B. 25

C. 10

D. 28

The correct answer is C (10). On the answer sheet:

1. [A] [B] [C] [D] 11. [A] [B] [C] [D] 21. [A] [B] [c] [D] 31. [A] [B] [C] [D] 41. [A] [B] [C] [D|

 

In the set of boxes numbered 11, the box with the letter C printed in it is marked.

11. Your dark line MUST be within the box.
12. For each question ONLY ONE box is to be marked in each set of four boxes.

1. What is 9301854 written in words?
A. Nine million three thousand and one, eight hundred and fifty four.
B. Ninety three and one thousand, eight hundred and fifty four.
C. Nine million three hundred and one thousand eight hundred and fifty four.
D. Nine hundred and thirty thousand eighteen hundred and fifty four.

2. What is the value of

 

A. 2 B.14
C. 18

D. 24

3. What is 4.59954 written correct to three decimal places?
A. 4.599

B. 4.6

C. 4.60

D. 4.600

4. What is the L.C.M of 30, 45 and 60?
A. 15

B. 135

C. 180

D. 540

5. What is the place value of digit 2 in the product of the total value of digit 4 multiplied by the total value of digit 3 in the number 57438?
A. Ones

B. Tens

C. Hundreds

D. Thousands

6. Jebet bought the following items;
3 packets of maize flour at sh 90 each
2 kg of beans for sh 1 70 1/2 kg of potatoes at sh 40 per kg 2loaves of bread at sh 34 each.
If she had sh 800, how much money was she left with?
A. sh 62
B. sh232
C. sh466
D. sh568

7. What is the value of x in the equation

A. 14

B. 10

C. 8

D. 4

8. The area of a square is 3 844cm2. What is the length of each side of the square?
A. 1922cm

B. 961cm ,

C. 67cm

D. 62 cm

9. Which is the correct order of writing the fractions

2 4 1 1 2 starting from the smallest to

5, 15, 6, 2, 3

Largest

10. In the triangle PQR below, construct the bisector of angle PQR to cut line PR at M and the bisector of angle QPR to cut line QR at N. The two bisectors intersect at point X. Join RX. P

 

 

 

•r

What is the size of angle RXM? A. 58°
B. 60°
C. 65°
D. 117°

 

 

11. How many fencing posts, spaced 5m apart, are required to fence a rectangular plot measuring 745m by 230m?
A. 391

B. 390

C. 195

D. 196

12. Awinja bought a pair of shoes for sh 810 after getting a discount of 10%. What was the marked price of the pair of shoes?
A. sh 81

B. sh 729

C. sh 891

D. sh 900

13. The table below shows the amount of milk delivered by a farmer to the dairy in 6 days.

What was the median sale of milk, in litres, for the 6 days?
A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

14. Mutiso and Oluoch shared the profit of their

business such that Mutiso got 3/5 of the profit. What was the ratio of Mutiso’s share to Oluoch’s share?
A. 3:2

B. 5:3

C. 3:5

D. 2:3

15. What is the value of

 

A. 14

B. 6.5

C. 4.5

D. 2.75

16. Mulwa had 5 one thousand shillings notes, 7 five hundred shillings notes, 10 two hundred shilling notes and 6 one hundred shillings notes. He then changed the money into fifty shillings notes.

How many notes altogether did he get?
A. 555000
B. 11100
C. 2220
D. 222

17. The figure below is a map of a village drawn to the scale 1:250 000

What is the perimeter of the village in

kilometres? A. 6000
B. 600

C. 60

D. 6

18. A cylindrical container has a circumference of 176cm and a height of 40cm. What is the volume of the container in cm2?

A. 394240

B. 98560

C. 7040

D. 3 520

which angle ZXY=50°, angle YZX=70° and line ZX=6cm.

 

 

Which one of the statements below leads to the correct construction of the triangle?
A. Use a ruler to draw line ZX=6cm long
and drop a perpendicular from Y to ZX. Then join Y to X and to Z.
B. Use a ruler to draw line ZX=6cm long and a pair of compasses to construct angle ZXY=50° and YZX=70°.

C. Measure and draw the angles ZXY=50° and YZX=70° using a protractor and draw line ZX = 6 cm long.
D. Use a ruler to draw line ZX=6cm long. Use a protractor to mark off an angle 70° at Z and angle of 50° at X. Let the lines
formed by the angles meet at Y.

21. Each of the diagonals of a rectangular flower garden is 65m. If one side of the garden measures 25m, what is the measurement of the other side?
A. 90m
B. 60m
C. 40m
D. 20m

22. A meeting was attended by 150 people. Out of these, 0,14 were men, 0.2 were women and the rest were children. How many more children than women were there?
A. 69

B. 78

C. 99

D. 129

23. The triangle PQR shown below has been drawn accurately.

What is the size of angle QPR? A. 95°
B. 85°

C. 50°

D. 45°

 

24. Mwaruwa is paid sh3 750 after working for 25 days. How much money would he be paid if he does not work for 4 days?

A. sh 600 B. sh 4464

C. sh 4350 D. sh 3150

25. A family uses 5 decilitres of milk each day. How many litres of milk altogether would the family use in the months of June and July?
A. 305 B. 30.5
C. 30.0 D. 3.05

26. In the triangle ABC below, construct a perpendicular from A to meet line BC at N.

Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Line AN bisects line BC

B. Angle BAN is equal to angle CAN

C. Angle ANB is equal to angle ANC

D. Line AB is equal to line BN.

27. The graph below shows the journey made by a social worker on a certain day.

 

 

Between which two places was his speed the
highest?
A. Home and school
B. School and health centre
C. Health centre and the market

D. Market and home.

 

29. What is the surface area of a cylindrical rod of height 17cm and diameter 14cm?

 

A. 748cm2
B. 902cm2
C. 1056cm2
D. 2728cm2

31. Halima bought 50 bananas @ sh3 each. She spent sh. 75 for transportation. During transportation 5 bananas got spoilt but she sold the rest making a 20% profit. For how much did she sell each banana?
A. sh4.00

B. sh5.40

C. sh5.60

D. sh6.00

 

32. Two sides of a parallelogram EFGH have been drawn below. Complete the parallelogram EFGH. Draw diagonals EG and FH to intersect at J.

 

What is the length of line FJ?
A. 2.7cm
B. 3.5cm
C. 4.4cm
D. 6.5cm

 

33. Mutuma left Mombasa on Tuesday at 6.30
p.m. and took 8 hours 45 minutes to reach his home. On what day and at what time in a 24 hour system did he reach home?
A. Wednesday 0315 h

B. Wednesday 1515 h

C. Tuesday 1515 h

D. Tuesday 0315 h

34. The pie chart below represents the population of 1 800 animals in a farm.

35. A car travelled 216km at an average speed of 48km/h. On the return journey the average speed increased to 72 km/h. Calculate the average speed, in km/h, for the whole journey?

How many more chickens than goats are there in the farm?
A. 300

B. 900

C. 1200

D. 180

 

 

 

37. A mathematics text book has 97 sheets of paper and a cover. Each sheet of paper has a mass of 4 grams and the cover has a mass of

A. 57.6

C. 28.8

B. 60

D. 68.6

20 g. Find the mass of the book in kilograms.

36. Which one of the statements below is a property of a right angled triangle?
A. All sides are equal.
B. Adjacent angles are supplementary.
C. Two of its sides are perpendicular.
D. The longest side of the triangle is opposite the smallest angle.

A 0.408

B. 4.08

C. 40.8

D. 408

 

If the area of the trapezium is 198cm2, what is the length of RP?
A. 15cm
B. 18cm
C. 25cm
D. 32cm

39 Ali is now two years older than Martha. If Martha’s age is represented by x, what will be their total ages after 10 years?
A. 2x+ 22
B. 3x + 20
C. x + 22
D. 2x+18
40. A football match was attended by 42000 men. The number of women who attended was 27000 less than the number of men and 12000 more than the number of children. The entrance fee for adults was sh100 and for children was sh50. How much money was collected altogether?
A. sh 11 700 000

B. sh 7 500000

C. sh 7 050000

D. sh 5 850000

41. In the figure below EFG is a straight line. Lines GH and FH are equal and lines HI and FI are also equal. Angle GHF is a right angle and angle HIF is 32°.
What is the size of angle EFI?

A. 45° B. 61°
C. 74° D. 103°
42. The table below shows part of Tariff for Ordinary Money Order and Postapay.

 

Range Ordinary Money Order

(sh) Postapay (sh)
7501-10000 250 550
10001-20000 300 675
20001-35000 400 800
35001-50000 450 1200
50 001-75 000 550 1600

Karimi has two children in one school. To pay for their school fees he sent sh 8 900 by Ordinary Money Order and sh 15 400 by Postapay. How much money would he have saved had he bought one Ordinary Money Order to pay for all the fees?
A. sh 125
B. sh400
C. sh525
D. sh925
43. Nina is paid a basic salary of sh 8 000 as a sales agent. In addition she is paid a 5% commission for goods sold above sh15000.In one month she earned sh12000 altogether. What were the total sales?
A. sh 255 000
B. sh 95000
C. sh 80000
D. sh 65000

44. What is the next number in the pattern 4 4,9, 25, 49,121,169, ?

A.289 B.256 C.225 D.196
45. The marked price of a motorcycle was sh30000 but a discount of 5% was allowed for cash payment. Taabu bought the motorcycle on hire purchase terms by paying a deposit of sh8500 followed by ten equal monthly instalments of sh 2 400 each. How much money would Taabu have saved had she bought it for cash?

A. sh 4000
B. sh 2500
C. sh 1500
D. sh 28500
46. Figure ABCDE below represents a vegetable garden in which AE=12m, AB = 36m and CD=24m. Angle DEA is a right angle. The distance from A to D is 15m. A perpendicular distance from C to AB is 10m.

 

47. A tailor made 48 pieces of uniform. Half of the number of the uniforms was each made using 11/4 metres of material. A quarter of the remainder was each made using 11/2 metres of material and the rest was each made using 13/4 metres of material. The tailor also fixed a logo made using 1/16 metres of material on each uniform.

How many metres of material did the tailor use?
A. 73 1/2 metres
B. 72 metres

C. 70 9/16 metres
D. 70 1/2 metres

48. The table below shows the train fares for Nairobi-Mombasa route.

The following passengers travelled in the train:

23 pupils of age 12 years and above 12 pupils aged between 7 and 10 years
2 children below 3 years

3 parents

5 teachers

1 headteacher

The passengers occupied the following classes in the train:

1st class: Headteacher, 1 parent
2 class: 5 teachers, 2 parents and all pupils and children
How much money did they pay for the journey to Mombasa?
A. sh 119 560
B. sh 151300
C. sh 156 100
D. sh 164 080
49. A man deposited sh50000 in a bank for 2 years. The bank paid compound interest at the rate of 10% per annum. How much money was in his account at the end of the two years?
A. sh 10500

B. sh 55500

 

 

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

 

ENGLISH SECTION A: LANGUAGE

C. sh 60 000

D. sh 60 500

50. The figures below represent a pattern.

 

 

 

 

 

 

KCPE 2011

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question booklet contains 50 questions.

2. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question booklet.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

3. Use an ordinary pencil.

4. Make sure you have written on the answer sheet:
YOUR INDEX NUMBER YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

5. By drawing a dark line inside the correct numbered boxes mark your full Index Number (i.e. School Code Number and the three-figure Candidate’s Number) in the grid near the top of the answer sheet.

6. Do not make any marks outside the boxes.

7. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and do not fold it.

8. For each of the questions 1 – 50 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each case only
ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.

9. On the answer sheet the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a dark line inside the box in which the letter you have chosen is written.
Example

For questions 23 to 25, choose the alternative that best completes the sentence.

23. She passed her exams very well, ?
A. is it
B. did she
C. didn’t she
D. isn’t it
The correct answer is C.
On the answer sheet:

3. [A] [B] [C] [D] 13. [A] [B] [C] [D] 23. [A] [B] [c] [D] 33. [A] [B] [C] [D] 43. [A] [B] [C] [D|

In the set of boxes numbered 23, the box with the letter C printed in it is marked.

10. Your dark line MUST be within the box.

11. For each question ONLY ONE box is to be marked in each set of four boxes

This question paper consists of 7 printed pages and 1 blank page.

901501 © The Kenya National Examinations Council, 2011 TURN OVER

Questions 1 to 15
Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the
best alternative from the choices given.

It is often 1 that all living things, plants and animals, have a 2 for existence. Each living organism plays an important role 3_it exists. However, there is one creature whose importance is 4 to see. This is the mosquito. What most people know 5 this tiny beast is that it is the major 6 by which Malaria is spread. It is therefore not 7 that some people have demanded the complete elimination of 8 species from the face of the earth.

It is interesting to note that the insect does not 9 to spread disease. It just wants to feed itself and to reproduce. Researchers have discovered that the female mosquito needs to feed on blood in order to lay eggs. As it moves from one source to another in 10 of blood, it ends up picking up and spreading the organisms that cause the disease. A common rule of nature is 11 at work here the survival of one creature means the death of another.
Some scientists have argued that the insect is not 12 useless. It serves as food for some other creatures such as lizards, geckos and birds. The lives of these predators 13 be at risk if there were no

1. A. seen

13. A. would

B. fully

 

2. A. part

3. A. wherever

4. A. hard

5. A. with

6. A. way

7. A. shocking

8. A. that

9. A. set off

10. A. search

11. A. seen

12. A. actually

14. A. lastly

15. A. for

B felt

B. reason

B. where

B. impossible

B. on

B. means

B. surprising

B. those

B. set about

B. need

B. found

B. must
B. eventually
B. on

C. thought

C. cause

C. whenever

C. easy

C. of

C. style

C. astonishing

C. this

C. set out

C. hunt

C. noticed

C. extremely

C. will

C. furthermore

C. in

D. said

D. purpose

D. when

D. clear

D. about

D. method

D. amazing

D. these

D. set forth

D. chase

D. observed

D. completely

D. may

D. therefore

D. against

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

For questions 16 and 17 select the alternative that
best fills the blank space in the sentences below.

16. They had just finished reading the story

A. had they

B. did they

C. hadn’t they

D. didn’t they

17. She often sings in the choir,

C. said

D. imagined.

20. She complained that most of her classmates looked down on her.

A. rejected

B. despised

C. abused

D. hated

A. isn’t it

B. doesn’t she

C. does she

D. is it

For questions 18 to 20 choose the alternative that can best replace the underlined phrase.

18. The little boy decided he would no longer put up with the bullying.

 

A. accept.

B. receive.

C. take.

D. tolerate.

19. Tomno had not made up his mind where he would spend his holidays.

A. decided

B. planned

In questions 21 and 22 choose the alternative that is
correctly punctuated

21. A “Juma, the teacher asked, where have you been since yesterday?”.
B. “Juma?” the teacher asked, where have you been since yesterday.”
C. “Juma,” the teacher asked, “where,have you been since yesterday?”
D. “Juma, the teacher asked where has you been since yesterday?”
22. A. The doctor said, “Keep medicine out of children’s reach.”
B. The doctor said, keep medicine out of childrens’ reach.”
C. The doctor said, “keep medicine out of childrens’ reach.”
D. The doctor said, “keep medicine out of children’s reach.”

For questions 23 to 25, choose the alternative that means the opposite of the underlined word.

23. When I asked him why he had arrived late, I found his answer unsatisfactory.

A. sensible

B. reasonable

C. incorrect

D. unacceptable

24. It is risky to cross that bridge at night.

A. safe

B. dangerous

C. harmful

D. secure

25. The headteacher forbade the pupils to bring cooked food into the school compound.

A. told

B. encouraged

C. allowed

D. advised.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 26 to 38.

“I wonder what Aoko is doing at home,” Njeri said, looking at her friend Cherono. ” Why don’t we go and find out?”
The three were close friends, in fact inseparable. They spent most of the day together, especially during the school holidays like now. Nine o’clock always found the girls together, and they would not part till evening. Strangely today, Aoko was nowhere to be seen yet it was already 10 o’clock.
The two girls walked to Aoko’s home. As they neared the house, Njeri called out, “Aoko, you have visitors!” There was no response. Obviously, their friend was not in.

Outside the house was seated an old lady the two girls had never seen before. They went up to her and Cherono greeted her in Aoko’s mother tongue. Cherono spoke the language fluently, one could not tell she was from a different community. The old lady responded and smiled broadly, exposing toothless gums. Njeri guessed the old lady was probably a hundred years old. Cherono then asked her where Aoko was.

I sent her to the shops to buy something, just get in and wait. I’m sure she’s on her way back,” said the
lady.

Njeri did not understand a word. She just followed her friend into the house.

Half an hour later, the girls were still waiting. Impatience got the better of Njeri. She suggested that they go away and return later. Cherono on the other hand had a different idea. She was curious about the old lady seated outside.
“Why don’t we go out and chat with the lady, you know these old people usually have fascinating stories to tell,” she said.
“But I won’t understand a thing. For you, the language is not a problem, so you’ll probably enjoy the stories,” grumbled Njeri.
After a little persuasion, Njeri gave in on condition that Cherono would translate everything into English or Kiswahili. They went out and found the lady humming a tune. She was in a world of her own, her face a picture of happiness. She did not seem to notice the two girls, who also did not want to break in on her bliss.
“Oh!” she exclaimed when she realized she was being watched. “I really love singing. It is good for the soul.
Do you also sing?” She asked.

Njeri looked at Cherono expecting her to translate what the lady had just said. And she did.

“I see your friend does not understand our language. The lady commented in English. The two girls were taken aback. “I just wanted to find out whether you two also love to sing,” she said, looking at Njeri.
“Yes,” replied Njeri, “but I did not know you spoke English.”

The lady let out a hearty laugh, once again exposing her toothless gums. She then went on to explain that she was a retired teacher of English, having taught for forty years
“I was taught the language by its owners,” she boasted.

“Just as I learnt your language from its owners,” Cherono remarked proudly. It was the lady’s turn to be astonished. “You mean you do not come from our community yet you speak our language so well?”

Aoko arrived to find the three deep in conversation. She was holding a newspaper. She explained that she had to walk all the way to the shopping centre for it. “My great grandma loves reading and as soon as she arrived here this morning she asked for a newspaper.”
Soon afterwards the three girls skipped away leaving the old lady buried in the paper.

 

 

26. Njeri wondered what Aoko was doing at home because
A. it was already 10 o’clock.

B. she wanted to play with her.

C. they were close friends.

D. it was unusual for Aoko to be late.

27. During the school holidays, the girls

A. always met at nine o’clock

B. loved listening to stories

C. became close friends

D. spent the better part of the day together.

28. Why did Njeri suggest that they “go away and come back later”?
A. She was bored.

B. She was nervous.

C. She was impatient.

D. She was worried.

29. Which of the following statements best explains why Cherono greeted the old lady in Aoko’s mother tongue?

A. She knew the old lady did not know English.

B. She assumed the old lady was from Aoko’s community.
C. She knew the old lady could understand

” the language.

D. She wanted to surprise the old iady by speaking her language.
30. When Njeri did not understand what the old lady was saying, she must have felt
A. embarrassed

B. annoyed

C. frustrated

D. rejected.

31. Which of the following is not a possible

explanation why Cherono was curious about the old lady?

A. The old lady was about a hundred years old.

B. She had never seen the old lady before.

C. The old lady had toothless gums.

D. She had learnt the old lady’s language.

32. Njeri was reluctant to ‘go out and chat’ with the old lady because

A. only Cherono could understand the old lady’s language.
B. she did not enjoy stories in another language.
C. She thought the stones would not be in English.
D. the old lady was not from her community.

33. The phrase “buried in the paper” as used in the passage means

A. covered with the paper.

B. reading the paper keenly.

C. looking at the paper.

D. the old lady was dead.

34. The expression “taken aback” as used in the passage means
A. shocked.

B. surprised.

C. frightened.

D. excited.

35. Why do you think the old lady “let out a hearty laugh”?
A. She was amused by the girls’ ignorance.

B. She wanted to surprise the girls.

C. She wanted to show off that she knew English.

D. She was proud about her community.

36. The old lady was ‘astonished’ because Cherono

A. was not from her community B, had been taught her language
C. was a good interpreter

D. could speak her language fluently.

37. Which of the following statements is not true about Aoko?

A. She was shocked to find her friends with her great grandmother.
B. She had been away for over thirty minutes.
C. She was an obedient girl.

D. She loved being with her friends.

38. Which of the following sayings can best apply to this passage?

A. A stitch in time saves nine.

B. Do not judge a book by its cover.

C. Experience is the best teacher.

D. Better late than never.

Read the passage below and then answer questions 39 to 50.

One of the most amazing things about the discovery of a 2,000 year old cemetery in the Bahariyah Oasis in Egypt was that no one was looking for it. No one even knew it existed. It had been completely buried by sand.
In 1996, a donkey belonging to a guard at the nearby temple stumbled into a hole in the sand a mile from the temple. When the guard peered into the hole, he saw something shining brightly. He reported the discovery to Egyptian archaeologists right away.
However, the archaeologists did not begin serious digging immediately. They did not have the workers or the money. So they made a quick survey of the site, and then covered everything up again. They wanted to hide it from thieves and protect it from exposure to the sun and weather. Finally, in 1999, they had enough money to begin exploring the site.
On their very first.day of work, after digging only several feet into the sand, they found a lot of mummies. Mummies are dead bodies that have been preserved for a long time. They are mostly found in Egypt. One of them had an especially beautiful mask. It was not a pharaoh’s mummy, though. It turned out that none of the tombs in this cemetery belonged to royalty. Most of the people buried here came from families that grew rich by trading in wine.
The most spectacular of these mummies have masks made of plaster covered with a thin layer of gold. Many are in wonderful condition. And because grave robbers never found these tombs, everything that was buried with them is still there. Most of the mummies have been left where they were found, but a few of the best preserved ones are on display in the Bahariyah Museum, where the public can take a look at them.
Two mummies were found lying side by side and were probably a husband and a wife. His mask and chest plate were decorated with religious figures. Her head was turned in his direction, indicating that the husband had died first.
Two other mummies are of children. Archaeologists think they were brother and sister because they were found together. The boy was probably about five years old. His mask with its painted eyes and features are so real – he almost seems alive!
Did archaeologists find treasures in these tombs? It depends on what you mean by “treasures.” They have not found any solid gold, but they have discovered all sorts of objects. The people buried in the cemetery may have thought some of these items would be useful in the afterlife. Or some may have been intended as gifts to the gods. For example, archaeologists have unearthed small statues of various gods. They have found many pieces of jewelry – necklaces, bracelets and anklets – made of copper, glass, ivory and semi-precious stones.

 

They have also discovered many pottery pieces used for storing, cooking or serving food. There were some bronze Greek and Roman coins too. And in the children’s tombs, they found toys – carved animals for the children to play with in the afterlife.
Archaeologists will be able to learn more about these people and their way of life by further studying their mummies and the things buried with them. And so many mummies were buried in the Valley of the Golden Mummies that excavation and learning will continue at the site for years to come.

(Adapted from Secrets of the Past by World Book, Inc. 2002)

39. The discovery of the 2,000 year-old cemetery in Bahariyah was
A. very sudden

B. really surprising

C. quite accidental

D. extremely important.

40. Who actually discovered the cemetery?

A. The guard.

B. The donkey.

C. The archaeologists.

D. The Egyptians.

41. What can we tell about the archaeologists from the information in the third paragraph?
A. They did not do things in a hurry.

B. They had a lot of digging to do.

C. They received reports from guards.

D. They did not have much money.

42. Which of the following statements is not true
according to the passage?

A. Robbers can interfere with the mummies.

B. Thieves had also discovered the cemetery.

C. Exposure to the weather can affect the

mummies.

D. There was enough sand to cover the cemetery.
43. The first day of digging can be described as

A. very stressful.

B. quite amazing.

C. very successful.

D. quite interesting.

44. “None of the tombs in this cemetery belonged to royalty” means that

A. the royal family did not own that cemetery.
B. members of the royal family were not buried there.
C. it was not good enough for kings and queens.
D. you do not bury such important people anywhere.

45. What evidence is there that the people buried there were rich?
A. They traded in wine.

B. They were well-preserved.

C. Their bodies were beautifully decorated.

D. Their masks arc covered with a layer of gold.

46. What can we assume about the culture of the people buried in this cemetery?
A. Members of the same family were buried
together.

B. The people were buried side by side.

C. The woman was supposed to face her husband.
D. They used masks in their religious ceremonies.
47. According to the passage, the word “treasures”
A. means different things to different people

B. is an important word in the passage

C. refers to all sorts of objects

D. refers to items found in tombs.

48. It is obvious that the people in the community believed
A. they would meet some gods later.

B. the gods expected some gifts.

C. there was live after death.

D. they needed some items after dying.

49. The word unearthed means

A. removed

B. discovered

C. exposed

D. recovered.

50. Which of the following would be the best

title for this passage?

A. The Unusual Discovery.

B. The Mummies of Bahariyah.

C. The Wonders of Ancient Egypt.

D. The Work of Archaeologists.

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2011

KISWAHILI SEHEMU YA PILI: INSHA
Muda: Dakika 40

 

 

NAMBA YAKO YA MTIHANI
JINA LAKO
JINA LA SHULE YAKO

 

SOMA MAAGIZO HAYA KWA MAKINI

1. Kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa hapo juu andika Namba yako kamili ya mtihani, Jina lako na Jina la Shule yako.
2. Sasa fungua karatasi hii, soma kichwa cha insha kwa makini na uandike insha yako kwenye nafasi ulizoachiwa.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

560 REVISING KCPE

Kijitabu hiki kina kurasa 4 zilizopigwa chapa.

© The Kenya National Examinations Council, 2011 FUNGUA UKURASA

901505

Umepewa dakika 40 kuandika insha yako.

Andika insha isiyopungua ukurasa mmoja na nusu ukifuata maagizo uliyopewa.
Mwandikie rafiki yako barua ukimshauri kuhusu namna ya kujiandaa vyema kwa mtihani wa KCPE.
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KISWAHILI
SEHEMU YA KWANZA: LUGHA

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2011

Muda: Saa 1 dakika 40

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

SOMA KWA MAKINI MAAGIZO YAFUATAYO:

1. Umepewa kijitabu hiki cha maswali na karatasi ya kujibia. Kijitabu hiki kina maswali 50.

2. Ukishachagua jibu lako lionyeshe katika KARATASI YA MAJIBU na wala sio katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

JINSI YA KUTUMIA KARATASI YA MAJIBU

3. Tumia penseli ya kawaida.

4. Hakikisha ya kwamba umeandika yafuatayo katika karatasi ya majibu:
NAMBA YAKO YA MTIHANI JINA LAKO
JINA LA SHULE YAKO
5. Kwa kuchora kistari katika visanduku vyenye namba zinazokuhusu, onyesha namba yako kamili ya mtihani (yaani namba ya shule, na zile namba tatu za mtahiniwa) katika sehemu iliyotengwa mwanzo wa karatasi ya majibu.

6. Usitie alama zozote nje ya visanduku.

7. Iweke safi karatasi yako ya majibu na usiikunje.

8. Kwa kila swali 1-50 umepewa majibu manne. Majibu hayo yameonyeshwa kwa herufi A, B, C, D. Nijibu MOJA tukati ya hayo manne ambalo ni sahihi. Chagua jibu hilo.

9. Kwenye karatasi ya majibu, jibu sahihi lionyeshwe kwa kuchora kistari katika kisanduku chenye herufi uliyochagua kuwandilojibu.
Mfano:
Katika kijitabu cha maswali:.
21. ‘Tunakimbiana’ maana yake ni:

A. Tunaogopana
B. Tunahepana
C. Tunasaidiana
D. Tunachukiana Jibu sahihi ni B
Katika karatasi ya majibu:

1. [A] [B] [C] [D] 11. [A] [B] [C] [D] 21. [A] [B] [C ] [D] 31. [A] [B] [C] [D] 41 [A] [B] [C] [D]

Katika visanduku vinavyoonyesha majibu ya swali namba 21, kisanduku chenye herufi B ndicho kilichochorwa kistari.
10. Chora kistari chako vizuri. Kistari chako kiwe cheusi na kisijitokeze nje ya kisanduku.

11. Kwa kila swali, chora kistari katika kisanduku kimoja tu kati ya visanduku vinne ulivyopewa.

Kijitabu hiki cha maswali kina kurasa 7 zilizopigwa chapa.

901504 © The Kenya National Examinations Council, 2011 FUNGUA UKURASA

Maswali 1 mpaka 15.

Soma vifungn vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nqfasi umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chaguajibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Wakazi wavitongoji duni 1 na matatizo mengi. Asiiimia kubwa ya waja hapa 2 3 aila. 4 katika mitaa ya mabwanyenye 5 na vitongoji hivi, hali ni tofauti; majumba yenye kuvutia yamepamba mazingira humo. Maisha ya makundi haya mawili 6 Wana wa matajiri hupata mahitaji 7 huku maskini 8 kwa ukosefu. Ama kwa kweli 9

 

1. A. wametwaliwa B. wamekabidhiwa C. ametengwa D. wametingwa

2. A. haiwezi B. hawawezi C. haziwezi D. hamuwezi

3. A. kumkimu B. kuzikimu C. kujikimu D. kuwakimu

4. A. Labda B. Kwa hivyo C. Hata hivyo D. Ingawa

5. A. waliyopakana B. iliyopakana C. uliyopakana D.yaliyopakana

6. A. yamebaidika kama ardhi na mbingu. B. yameadimika kama wali wa daku.

C. yameingia kati kama mchuzi wa ugali. D. yamejikaukia kama ukuni.

7. A. zote B. yote C. nyote D. sote

8. A. wakila mwata B. wakilamwande C. wakilayamini D. wakilahasara

9. A. dua la kuku halimpati mwewe B. bidii ya mja haiondoi kudura

C. dau la mnyonge haliendi joshi D. mtegemea nundu haachi kunona

Tina alijua kwamba alihitaji kutia bidii masoraoni asije 10 shule. Kijijini mwao ilikuwa kawaida wasichana 11 nafasi katika elimu. Palipotokea uhaba 12 karo, masomo ya msichana 13 huku mvulana akiendelea na elimu. Mara hii Tina aliamua kutia bidii ili angaa Mwalimu Mkuu amtafutie mhisani 14 Kwa niia hii Tina 15 namna fulani va kuliokoa tabaka lake.
10. A. akaachishwa B. akaachiwa C. akaachilia D. akaachia

11. A. kunyanyaswa B. kubadilishiwa C. kudhulumiwa D.kupunguzwa

12. A. ya B.kwa C. wa D. na

13. A. yangekatizwa B. yanakatizwa C. yakikatizwa D.yakakatizwa

14. A. ayathamini masomo yake B. amthamini masomo yake

C. amdhamini masomo yake D. ayadhamini masomo yake

15. A. alitarajia alipata B. alijihimu alipata C. alijihimu kupata D. alitarajia kupata

Kutoka swali la 16 mpaka 30, chaguajibu lililo sahihi.

16. Sentensi inayounganisha sentensi: “Juma ni mzee. Juma anasoma kitabu bila miwani”. kisahihi ni:
A. Juma ni mzee maadamu anasoma kitabu bila miwani.
B. Juma anasoma kitabu bila miwani licha ya kuwa yeye ni mzee.
C. Juma ni mzee madhali anasoma kitabu bila miwani.
D. Juma anasoma kitabu bila miwani minghairi ya yeye ni mzee.

17. Ki katika sentensi; “Mwanafunzi huyo akikuona atatembea kijeshi”, imetumiwa kuonyesha:
A. Masharti, nomino.

B. Wakati, nomino.

C. Masharti, narnna.

D. Wakati, namna.

18. Chagua neno ambalo limetumia silabi changamano:
A. Mbuga.

B. Kituta.

C. Ziwa.

D. Utulivu.

19. Kamilisha, ‘Fahamikiana kama

A. sahani na kawa

B. kinunamchi

C. puana mdorno

D. tui na maziwa.

20. Chagua sentensi yenye vivumishi:

A Mwashi amejenga nyumba juu ya mlima.

B. Yule ahimba vizuri mno akatuzwa

C. Nokoa atafika hapa hivi punde.

D. Wanafunzi wengi walifaulu mtihani huo.

21. Ni sentensi ipi ambayo imetumia ‘kwa’ kuonyesha sehemu ya kitu?
A. Alitembea moja kwa moja hadi shuleni.

B. Wazee kwa vijana walihudhuria sherehe hiyo.
C. Watu watatu kwa kumi huepuka mitego.

D. Monika alipongezewa kwa wazazi wake.

22. Mkono wazi ni kwa ukarimu ilhali ni kwa inda.

A. jicho lanje

B. joka la mdimu

C. kifauongo

D. kisebusebu.

23. Chagua kifaa cha uhunzi

A. fuawe

B. patasi

C. timazi

D. chetezo

24. Ni kundi lipi lenye sauti ghuna pekee?

A. p, t, z

B. v, th, n

C. sh, l, w

D. b, d, g.

25. Wingi wa, ‘Kiduka hicho kilifunguliwa jana’. ni:

A. Madukahizo ziliftmguliwajana.

B. Vidukahizozilifunguliwajana.

C. Viduka hivyo vilifunguliwa jana.

D. Maduka hayo yalifunguliwa jana.

26. Ni sentensi ipi sahihi?

A. Hewala! Nitakusaidia.

B. Kefule! Naombamaji.

C. Oyee! Tumeshindwa.

D. Hamadi! Amekuja.

27. Miaka mia ni kwa karne ilhali vitu ishirini ni kwa
A. kikwi

B. korija

C. mwongo

D. lukuki.

28. Chagua sentensi yenye kiwakilishi cha idadi:
A. Mwanafunzi aliyefika kwanza alimpata mwalimu wa pili darasani.
B. Mwalimu aliyetufunza mwanzoni alituuliza swali moja mara mbili.
C. Mwalimu aliyetufunza mwanzoni alitufafanulia mambo kadha ya kutufaa.
D. Mwanafunzi aliyefika kwanza alipewa medali na wa pili akapewa kitabu.

29. Ni sentensi ipi ambayo imetumia sitiari?

A. Mwakio ni sungura siku hizi.

B. Moyo wake ulimwambia asirudi nyuma.

C. Muuguzi alisema atajifungua salama.

D. Nyaboke ni mpole kama njiwa.

30. Ikiwa juzi ilikuwa Jumatatu, Jumamosi itakuwa:

A. Kesho

B. Mtondo

C. Mtondogoo

D. Keshokutwa.

Soma kifungu kijuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 31 – 40.

Mfumo wa elimu nchini unatilia mkazo mafunzo mengine ambayo, japo yamo nje ya masomo ya kawaida, yanahusiana na kwenda sambamba na masomo hayo ya kawaida. Vyama vya wanafunzi shuleni vinachangia pakubwa kupitisha mafunzo hayo ya ziada

Vyama vya wanafunzi hutofautiana kulingana na majukumu. Mathalani, vipo vyama vya kidini, vya kitaaluma na vya michezo. Pia, kuna vyama vya kijamii kama vile Chama cha Kupambana na Matumizi Mabaya ya Dawa na vya kiuchumi kama vile Chama cha Wakulima Chipukizi.

Imedhihirika kwamba vyama vya wanafunzi vina manufaa ya kuhusudiwa. Hii ndiyo sababu shuleni, kila mwanafunzi anahimizwa kujiunga na angaa vyama viwili. Vyama vya wanafunzi huwasaidia kukuza vipawa na kuimarisha stadi za kujieleza. Haya hufikiwa kupitia kwa shughuli za vyama kama vile ukariri wa mashairi, mijadala, utegaji na uteguaji

vitendawili, chemsha bongo na ulumbi. Aidha, vyama hivi huhimiza utangamano miongoni mwa wanachama kwani wao hujiona kuwa watu wenye mwelekeo mmoja. Vilevile utangamano wa kitaifa na kimataifa hujengeka.

Mwanafunzi arnbaye amejiunga na vyama vya wanafunzi huweza kukabiliana na changamoto za maisha kwa urahisi kuliko yule ambaye hajawahi kujiunga na chama chochote. Katika vyama hivi. wanafunzi hufunzana mikakati na maarifa ya kutatua matatizo na mbinu za kuepuka mitego ya ujana. Kupitia kwa ushauri wa marika kwa mfano, mwanafunzi hushauriwa kuhusu masuala kama vile uteuzi wa marafiki, kuratibu muda, kujikubali na kuwakubali wenzake.

Hali kadhalika, mwanafunzi hujifunza maadili ya kijamii na kidini. Kupitia kwa vyama vya kidini na vinginevyo, yeye hujifunza kujistahi na kuwa na stahamala ya kidini, kiitikadi na kikabiia. Kadhalika, majukumu ambayo mwanafunzi huenda akapewa hupalilia uwajibikaji, uaminifu na kipawa cha uongozi. Hata anapohitimu masomo yake, mwanafunzi huyu huendeleza sifa hizi.

Vijana wana nafasi kubwa katika kukabiliana na maovu ya kijamii kwani wao ndio wengi zaidi. Kupitia kwa vyama hivi, wanamnzi wanaweza kuwahamasisha wenzao dhidi ya tabia hasi kama vile kushiriki mapenzi kiholela, ulanguzi wa dawa za kulevya na kujiingiza katika burudani zisizofaa. Pia, shughuli na miradi ya vyama hivi huwawezesha wanafunzi kutumia nishati zao kwa njia ya kujinufaisha na kuepuka maovu. Kwa mfano, wanaweza kwenda kukwea milima, kufanya matembezi ya kukusanya pesa za kuwafadhili wahitaji, kuendeleza shughuli za kunadhifisha mazingira na kutembelea vituo vya mayatima na wazee.

Kushiriki katika vyama vya michezo hakumwezeshi mwanafunzi kuimarisha afya na kujenga misuli tu, bali pia huweza kuwa msingi wa kupata chanzo cha riziki baadaye. Wapo wachezaji maarufu ambao walitarnbua na kuviendeleza vipawa vyao kupitia kwa vyama vya aina hii, na hivi sasa wana uwezo wa kuyaendesha maisha yao na ya familia zao.

Ifahamike kuwa vyama vya wanafunzi vinapaswa kuwa msingi wa mshikamano na maridhiano. Visitumiwe kama vyombo vya kuwagawa wanafunzi kitabaka. Mwanafunzi hana budi kusawazisha muda anaotumia. Atenge muda wa shughuli za vyama na wa kudurusu masomo yake.

31. Kulingana na kifungu, mwanafunzi akiwa shuleni:

A. Hufunzwa mfumo sambamba, hufunzwa kupitisha mafunzo ya ziada
B. Hujiungana vyama, hujifunza mfumo sambamba
C. Huftmzwa mfumo sambamba, hufunzwa taaluma ya vyama
D. Hujiunga na vyama, hujifunza taaluma mbalimbali.

32. Katika aya ya pili, wazo kuu analozungumzia mwandishi ni:

A. Aina za vyama vya kijamii

B. Majukumu ya vyama vya wanafunzi

C. Aina za vyama vya wanafunzi

D. Majukumu ya vyama vya kijamii.

33. Chagua jibu lisilo sahihi kwa mujibu wa taarifa.

A. Vyama vya wanafimzi huchangia kukuza ubunifu wa wanafimzi.
B. Vyama vya wanafunzi huchangia kukuza uzalendo wa kimataifa.
C. Vyama vya wanafunzi huwasaidia kuimarisha uzalendo na mahusiano mema.
D. Vyama vya wanafunzi huwasaidia kuimarisha uhusiano na nchi nyingine.
34. Kifungu kinaonyesha kuwa ushauri na uelekezaji:

A. Humwezesha mwanafunzi kujithamini.
B. Humsaidia mwanafunzi kupata marafiki.
C. Humwandalia mwanafunzi mpangilio wa kazi.
D. Humwondolea mwanafunzi mitego.

35. Kwa mujibu wa taarifa, jibu linalodhihirisha maana ya methali, “Ukiona vyaelea vimeundwa,”

ni:

A. Wanafunzi wakipewa nafasi ya uongozi huheshimu mielekeo ya wengine.
B. Wanafunzi wakipewa nafasi ya uongozi hujistahiki na kustahimili wengine.
C. Wanafunzi wakipewa nafasi ya uongozi huhimiza stahamala ya kidini baadaye.
D. Wanafunzi wakipewa nafasi ya uongozi huwa wa kutegemewa baadaye.

36. Kulingana na kifungu, vijana wanaweza kudhihirisha uwajibikaji katika jamii kupitia:

A. Kuwapinga walanguzi wa dawa za kulevya na kuepuka burudani.
B. Kufanya matembezi anuwai ya kukusanya pesa.

C. Kushirtki katika miradi ya kuwaauni wanyonge.

D. Kuendeleza shughuli za kuhifadhi mazingira na kutembea milimani.
37. Kifungu kimebainisha kuwa:

A. Vijana ndio wanaoweza kushiriki mapenzi

kiholela.

B. Vijana wanaweza kutumiwa kama msingi wa

kustawisha vituo vya wahitaji.

C. Vijana wanaweza kutumiwa kama msingi wa kuadilisha jamii pana.
D. Vijana ndio wanaoweza kukabiliana na matatizo ya kijamii.

38. Chagua jibu sahihi kulingana na kifungu

A. Michezo huweza kumjengea mtu jina na kumwimarisha kiuchumi.
B. Wachezaji maarufu walianza kucheza walipojiunga na vyama.
C. Wachezaji maarufu walianza kugundua

vipawa vyao walipojiunga na vyama.

D. Michezo huweza kumjengea mtu uwezo na kumwimarisha kiuchumi

39. Maoni ya mwandishi katika aya ya mwisho ni kwamba:
A. Vyama vya wanafunzi vinaweza kuvuruga usawa katika jamii.
B. Vyama vya wanafunzi ndio msingi wa kumsaidia mwanafunzi kutumia muda wake darasani.
C. Vyama vya wanafunzi vinaweza kuvuruga masomo katika darasa.
D. Vyama vya wanafunzi ndio msingi wa kuimarisha umoja na maelewano katika jamii.
40. Kulingana na kifungu, ‘manufaayakuhusudiwa’

ni:

A. manufaa yanayowafaidi wengi

B. manufaa yanayowavutia wengi

C. manufaa yasiyosahaulika kwa urahisi

D. manufaa yasiyopatikana kwa urahisi.

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali 41 mpaka 50.

Naikumbuka siku hiyo vizuri. Niliamka alfajiri mbichi tayari kuanza safari kutoka kijijini mwetu hadi Mji Mkuu. Hii ndiyo iliyokuwa mara yangu ya kwanza kuuzum mji huu. Moyoni nilikuwa na bashasha isiyokuwa ya kawaida kwa sababu siku hiyo ningeuona mji ambao sifa zake nilikuwa nikizisikia tu kutoka kwa wenzangu waliobahatika kuutembelea. Hamu ya kuona majengo marefu, barabara zilizosakifiwa, magari mengi, watu wa asili mbalimbali na mabustani ya starehe ilinigubika, nikawa sijifai kwa matumaini.

Tsilitembea hatua chache hadi kituo cha rnabasi, nikapata daladala moja ihyotoza nauli nafuu, nikaiabiria mpaka mji uliokuwa pua na mdomo kutoka kitongojini mwetu. Hapo nilitumaima kupata matwana ya kusafiria hadi Mji Mkuu. Kwenye stesheni kulikuwa na msongamano wa matwana na harakati za utingo waliokuwa waking’ang’ania abiria. Nikaingia katika matwana moja iliyoitwa Upepo. Nilikuwa abiria wa kumi na mbili kuingia. Baada ya dakika tano hivi, gari lilijaa abiria, wote kumi na wanne. Tukang’oa nanga. Mandhari ya kupendeza yalijikunjua mbele yangu. Upepo mwanana kupitia dirishani, mpito wa kasi wa miti, mazigazi ….vyote vilishirikiana kunipumbaza kiasi cha kunisahaulisha kufunga mkanda wa usalama.

Baada ya robo saa utingo alidai nauli. Nikapeleka mkono kwa tahadhari kwenye kibindo changu ambamo nilikuwa nimezifutika hela za usafiri na masurufu. Nikatoa noti ya shilingi mia mbili na kumkabidhi utingo huku nikitarajia baki. – Utingo alinikazia macho, akanyoosha mkono na kusema, “Mia zaidi!” Nikarudi tena kwenye kibindo, nikatoa noti mbili za shilingi hamsini na kumpa. Safari ikaendelea.

Tulipofika mji mdogo wa Pitia, matwana ilisimama. Utingo aliinama chini ya viti, akatoa vibao na kuviweka baina ya viti vya kawaida. Kisha akaanza kutangaza, “Wa Jiji na mia; mia hamsini”, Abiria walioonekana kuwa wachovu kwa kungojea na kupigwa na mzizimo wa kipupwe walipigana vikumbo kuingia, huku utingo akiwaelekeza kwenye vile vibao. Viti vilivyotengenezewa abiria watatu vikaishia kubeba abiria watano! Matwana nayo ikawa haina budi kustahimili uzito wa abiria ishirini na watatu. Tukawa tunabanana kweli kweli. Utingo naye alining’inia mlangoni, shati lake lapeperushwa na upepo. NUipojaribu kulalamikia hali hii nilinyamazishwa hata na abiria wenzangu.

Gari likaanza mwendo tena huku likiendeshwa kwa kasi ya umeme. Abiria waliokuwa wakizungumza sasa walinyamaza, kila mmoja roho i mkononi. Kimya cha kaburi kikatawala hadi pale utingo alipomwambia dereva, “Weka ngoma.” Muziki ukahanikiza hewani kwa fujo. Baadhi ya abiria wakaanza kuyumbisha vichwa kwa kufuata mdundo wa muziki ambao ulitishia kuvipasua viwambo vya masikio yangu.

Njiani tulikutana na walinda usalama ambao walitusimamisha. Utingo alishuka na kwenda chemba na mrnojawapo wa hao maafisa. kisha akarudi huku kipaji chake kirnenawiri kwa tabasamu. Akasema, “Nimempaka mafuta viganjani.” Baadhi ya abiria walitikisa vichwa, wengine wakacheka kama kwamba wameona kinyago. Mimi nilibaki kuduwaa tu. Gari liliongeza mwendo na baada ya muda mfupi tukafika kwenye mji mmoja ambao ulikuwa na majengo makubwa makubwa. Nikadhani tumefika Mji Mkuu. Nilipomuuliza abiria jirani aliniambia kuwa huu ulikuwa tu mji mkuu wa Jimbo la Buraha. Tukazidi kuyakunja masafa ya safari hii kwa kasi ya kuogofya huku dereva akitafuna majani aliyokuwa akiyatoa mfukoni mwa shati lake. Kadiri alivyoyatafuna ndivyo alivyozidisha kasi. Nikahisi kama gari linapaa juu angani. Nikataka kumwambia dereva jambo, lakini nikajiasa, “Ikiwa wengine wamenyamaza sembuse mimi?”

Baada ya kitambo kidogo mvua ilianza kunyesha. kukawa na ukungu na utelezi barabarani. Abiria mmoja alimsihi dereva kupunguza mwendo. Haya hayakumgusa dereva mshipa. Aliongeza kasi kana kwamba hajasikia lolote. Gari lilifika kwenye kuruba, dereva akawa haoni vizuri. Ghafla nikasikia, “Kirrr..!” Kisha/’Mungu wangu!” Halafu, ‘ngu!’ Kiza cha kaniki kikatanda.

41. Kulingana na kifungu;
A. Wenzake Msimulizi waliwahi kupata fursa ya kuishi katika Mji Mkuu.
B. Barabara za Mji Mkuu hazina mashimo.
C. Mji Mkuu una majumba mengi marefu.
D. Msimulizi ana mwao na hali ilivyo katika Mji Mkuu.
42. Chagua jibu sahihi kuhusu vituo vya raagari kwa mujibu wa aya ya pili:
A. Wasafiri wengi kushindania nafasi
B. Magari mengi kushindania wasafiri
C. Misongamano mingi ya kutangazia wasafari
D. Shughuli nyingi za kunadia nafasi.

43. Mazingira ya kuvutia yalimwathiri Msimulizi kwani:
A. Aliduwaanakujisahau.
B. Alifurahiaupeponakujisahau.
C. Alizubaa na kupuuza sheria za usafiri,
D. Alipumbaa na kupinga sheria za usafiri.

44. Msimulizi alikuwa amehifadhi pesa katika:
A. Mfuko mdogo ndani ya suruali.
B. Mfuko mdogo mbele ya suruali.
C. Mkunjo wa nguo iliyoshonwa kiunoni.
D. Mkunjo wa nguo uliofungwa kiunoni.

45. Katika mji wa Pitia abiria walipigana vikumbo kuingia garini kwa sababu:
A. Kulikuwa na uhaba wa magari.
B. Kulikuwa na uhaba wa viti.
C. Walikuwa wamechoka kungojea matwana Upepo.
D. Walikuwa wamepigwa na baridi na mvua.
46. Kulingana na kifungu, ajali barabarani husababishwa na:
A. ukosefu wa magari, kubeba abiria wetigi.
B. kiburi cha madereva, kutozingatia maelekezo barabarani.
C. ukosefu wa mikanda ya usalama, madereva kutowajibika.
D. muziki wa kupasua viwambo, madereva kutoona vizuri.

47. Msimulizi ni mkakamavu kwa vile:
A. Alishutumu hali ya gari kubeba abiria kuliko kiasi.
B. Alishutumu hali ya shati na utingo kuning’inia nje.
C. Alinyarnaza alipoona dereva akikaribia kurubakwakasi.
D. Alinyamaza alipoona utingo akienda chemba na afisa.

48. Chagua jibu lisilo sahihi kulingana na kifungu:
A. Abiria wengine waliufurahia muziki garini.
B. Ufisadi unaweza kusababisha ajali barabarani,
C. Abiria wanaweza kuzuia ajali barabarani.
D. Kuruba ndiyo iliyosababisha ajali garini.

49. Ni mfuatano upi wa matukio ufaao kwa mujibu wa kifungu?
A. Kucheza muziki, kukutana na polisi, kufikia kuruba, mvua kunyesha, kupata ajali
B. Kukutana na polisi, kuhonga, kucheza muziki,kufikia kuruba, kupata ajali
C. Kucheza muziki, kukutana na polisi, kuhonga,kufikia kuruba, kupata ajali.
D. Kukutana na polisi, gari kupaa juu, mvua kunyesha, kufikia-kuruba, kupata ajali.
50. ‘Kiza cha kauiki kikatanda’: kulingana na kifungu ina maana:
A. Msimulizi akapoteza fahamu.
B. Msimulizi akapoteza uwezo wa kuona.
C. Kukawa na weusi mkubwa.
D. Kukawa na giza totoro.

 

 

SCIENCE

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2011

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Please read these instructions carefully)
1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question booklet contains 50 questions.
2. Do any necessary rough work in this booklet.

3. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question booklet.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

4. Use an ordinary pencil only.

5. Make sure that you have written on the answer sheet:

YOUR INDEX NUMBER YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

6. By drawing a dark line inside the correct numbered boxes mark your full Index Number (i.e. School Code Number and the three-figure Candidate’s Number) in the grid near the top of the answer sheet.
7. Do not make any marks outside the boxes.

8. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and do not fold it.

9. For each of the questions 1 – 50 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each case only ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.

10. On the answer sheet, show the correct answer by drawing a dark line inside the box in which the letter you have chosen is written.

Example

In the Question Booklet

4. Which one of the following components of blood is involved in clotting after injury?
A. Plasma

B. White blood cells

C. Red blood cells

D. Platelets. The correct answer is D. On the answer sheet:
4. [A] [B] [C] [D] 14. [A] [B] [C] [D] 24. [A] [B] [C] [D] 34. [A] [B] [C] [D] 44. [A]
[B] [C] [D]
In the set of boxes numbered 4, the box with the letter D printed in it is marked.

11. Your dark line MUST be within the box.

12. For each question ONLY ONE box is to be marked in each set of four boxes.

 

This Question Paper consists of 7 printed pages.

© The Kenya National Examinations Council, 2011 TURN OVER

1. Which one of the following diseases is a child immunized against at birth, sixth week, tenth week and fourteenth week after birth?
A. Measles.

B. Yellow fever.

C. Tuberculosis.

D. Poliomyelitis.

2. Which one of the following is advisable when spraying with chemicals?

A. Spraying when the temperatures are very high.
B. Wearing a gas mask when spraying.

C. Spraying against the direction of wind.

D. Washing hands before spraying.

3. Which one of the following pairs consists only of omnivorous animals?

A. Chimpanzee and pig.
B. Chimpanzee and hyena.
C. Hippopotamus and crocodile.
D. Hippopotamus and pig.

4. The reason why some plants have thick waxy cuticle is to
A. store manufactured food
B. reduce water loss
C. allow breathing to take place
D. traps more sunlight.

5. Which one of the following consists of groups of food that mainly contains fats?
A. Avocado, groundnuts, coconut.
B. Maize, coconut, beans.
C. Irish potatoes, groundnuts, maize.
D. Irish potatoes, beans, avocado.

6. The first step in obtaining salt from a mixture of salt solution and pieces of copper
wire is

A. filtering

B. winnowing

C. using a magnet

D. evaporating to dryness.

7. Substances that have definite mass and volume are
A. solids only
B. solids and liquids
C. liquids only
D. liquids and gases.

8. A lactating mother should feed on a diet rich in calcium and phosphorous in order to
A. enables her to regain strength
B. replaces blood lost during birth
C. improve the immunity of the baby
D. strengthens the bones of the baby.
9. Which one of the following is the most effective preventive measure against the spread of sexually transmitted infections amongst the youth in schools?
A. Seeking medical attention.
B. Use of condoms.
C. Circumcision.
D. Abstinence.

10. Which one of the following pairs consists only of inclined planes?
A. Wheelbarrow and see-saw.
B. Road winding up a hill and staircase.
C. Ladder and see-saw.
D. Wheelbarrow and staircase.

11. The percentage of the component of air in the atmosphere used by legumes to make proteins is
A. 78%

B. 21%

C. 0.97%

D. 0.03%.

12. The following are signs and symptoms of anaemia
EXCEPT
A. breathlessness
B. pale white eyes
C. muscle wastage
D. tiredness.
13. Which one of the following consists only of a pair of animals that have constant body temperature?
A. Shark and whale.
B. Tortoise and ostrich.
C. Shark and bat.

D. Bat and ostrich.
14. The following are some activities carried out in an experiment to investigate drainage in soil.

 

(i) Put equal amounts of three types of soil in separate funnels,
(ii) Place the funnels on the mouth of each of the three plastic bottles.
(iii) Put cotton wool in the neck of each funnel,
(iv) Pour equal amounts of water on each type of soil at the same time.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT order of the activities?
A. (i),(ii),(iii),(iv).
B. (iii),(ii),(i),(iv).
C. (i),(iii),(ii),(iv).
D. (ii),(i),(iii),(iv).

15. Which one of the following methods of soil conservation can be used to control splash erosion?
A. Making terraces.
B. Building gabions.
C. Planting cover crops.
D. Practising contour farming.

16. The effects of heat on ice that make it change to gaseous form are
A. freezing and condensing
B. melting and evaporating
C. condensing and evaporating
D. freezing and melting.

Which one of the following is CORRECTLY

represented by K?
A. Frogs.
B. Snakes.
C. Weaverbirds.
D. Lizards.

19. Which one of the following pests is CORRECTLY
matched with the part of the crop it attacks?

Pest Part of crop attacked
A. Aphids Grains.
B. Stalkborer Leaves.
C. Cutworm Stems.
D. Weevils Leaves.

20. Which one of the following diagrams represents what is observed when water is poured into a tin can with holes of the same size at different depths?

 

From the thermometer, the temperature of the liquid is

A. 30°C

B. 27°C

C. 20°C

D. 10°C.

The aspect demonstrated was
A. conduction in different solids
B. convection in water
C. conduction in water

D. expansion indifferent solids.

 

23. To save a person who has touched an exposed electric wire, one should
A. push the person away using dry wood
B. pull the person from the wire
C. pour cold water on the person
D. shake the person vigorously.

24. In a certain investigation pupils heated different materials and recorded their findings.

Which one of the following CORRECTLY shows the pupils’ findings?

Materials that felt Materials that did hot quickly not feel hot quickly
A. Rubber Iron.

B. Copper Aluminium.
C. Plastic Glass.
D. Steel Wood.

25. Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE about friction. Friction is a force that
A. makes work difficult
B. is reduced by treading tyres
C. can be used to produce fire
D. affect the speed of moving objects.

 

 

26. Which one of the following statements describe a human canine tooth?
A. Chisel shaped with one root.
B. Rough surface with two roots.
C. Rough surface with three roots.
D. Pointed tip with one root.

27. Which one of the following consists only of parts of the human body where digestion takes place?
A. Mouth and stomach.
B. Large intestines and mouth.
C. Liver and stomach.
D. Large intestines and liver.

28. Which one of the following statements about reproduction in human beings is CORRECT?
A. Fertilization takes place in the uterus.
B. Ovulation always takes place twice in a month.
C. Uterine wall contracts during birth.

D. The embryo develops into a zygote.

29. In which one of the following activities is water used for recreation?
A. Watering plants.
B. Cooking.
C. Washing clothes.
D. Swimming.

30. In which one of the following is water used sparingly?

A. Using domestic waste water to clean toilets.
B. Turning off water taps after use.

C. Recycling waste water from factories.

D. Using harvested rain water for animals to drink.
31. When constructing a windvane the

A. pointer should be fixed on a short stand

B. pointer should be firmly held to the stand

C. pointer should be made of cardboard

D. tail of the pointer should be larger than arrow head.

32. Which one of the following groups of planets are in the CORRECT order in terms of distance from the sun?

A. Venus, Mars, Earth.

B. Earth, Saturn, Jupiter.

C. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus.

D. Mars, Neptune, Uranus.

 

 

 

33. The diagram below represents a weather chart prepared by pupils.

Which one of the following statements is
CORRECT about the weather chart?
A. Whenever it was sunny it was also calm at the same time.
B. It only rained after calm conditions.
C. Whenever it was rainy it was also windy at the same time.
D. It rained only in the afternoons.

34. Birds that have short, straight and thick beaks are
A. filter feeders
B. flesh eaters
C. nectar feeders
D. grain eaters.
35. In which one of the following does the load move through the same distance as the effort when in use?
A. Crowbar.
B. Flagpost.
C. Spade.
D. Clawhammer.

36. Which one of the following pairs of objects will float on water?
A. Coin and candlewax.
B. Bottle opener and needle.
C. Biro pen casing and rubber band.
D. Nail and bottle top.

37. During a demonstration to investigate a certain property of matter, soil was put in a small container and then dipped in water in a basin.
This was to show the presence of
A. air in water
B. water in soil
C. minerals in soil
D. air in soil.
38. Which one of the following pairs of materials are good conductors of electricity?
A. Steelwool and glass.
B. Coin and chalk.
C. Pins and dry wood.
D. Aluminium foil and razor blade.

39. Which one of the following statements about energy is TRUE? Energy is
A. a push or a pull
B. ability to do work
C. force that moves a load
D. force overcome by a machine.
40. Driving a motor vehicle with a well maintained engine will mainly control pollution in
A. air only
B. water only

C. soil and air
D. air and water.

41. A flower which has long feathery stigma and loosely held anthers is also likely to
A. have brightly coloured petals
B. have sweet scent
C. produce many pollen grains
D. produce nectar.

42. The chart below shows some farm animals and their products.

B. measure amount of force of different materials
C. show how different materials move up and down
D. compare the masses of different materials.

44. Which one of the following is TRUE about soil that has high water retention? It has
A. large air spaces
B. low capillarity
C. fine texture
D. large particles.

45. Which one of the following is an effect of soil pollution?
A. Formation of acid rain.
B. Death of small animals.
C. Interferes with photosynthesis.
D. Causes respiratory diseases.

46. Which one of the following groups consist only of external livestock parasites?
A. Fleas, mites, ticks.
B. Roundworms, lice, mites.
C. Fleas, tape worms, lice.
D. Mites, roundworms, ticks.

47. In which one of the following cases is friction a disadvantage?
A. Grinding maize.
B. Writing.
C. A bird flying.
D. Braking.

 

 

 

48. Which one of the following is a source of electricity?
A. Electromagnet.
B. Bulb.
C. Dynamo.
D. Dam.

49. Which one of the following are both reasons for lighting a house?
A. Safety and discouraging pests.
B. Drying and discouraging pests.
C. Warming and seeing clearly.
D. Safety and warming.

50. In a certain investigation on soil, pupils heated soil in a container until smoke was produced. This was to investigate presence of

A. air in soil
B. organic matter in soil
C. water in soil
D. living organisms in soil.

 

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL

KCPE 2011

SOCIAL STUDIES AND RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

Time: 2 hour 15 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Please read these instructions carefully)

1. You have been given this question booklet and a separate answer sheet. The question booklet contains 90 questions.

2. Do any necessary rough work hi this booklet.

3. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not in this question booklet.

HOWTOUSETHEANSWERSHEET

4. Use an ordinary pencil.

5. Make sure you have written on the answer sheet:

YOUR INDEX NUMBER YOUR NAME
NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

6. By drawing a dark line inside the correct numbered boxes mark your full Index Number (i.e. School Code Number and the three-figure Candidate’s Number) in the grid near the top of the answer sheet.
7. Do not make any marks outside the boxes.

8. Keep the sheet as clean as possible and do not fold it.

9. For each of the questions 1-90 four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each case only ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.

10. On the answer sheet the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a dark line inside the box in which the letter you have chosen is written.

Example

584 REVISING KCPE

In the Question Booklet:

31. Which one of the following groups of people belong to a nuclear family?
A. Mother, Son, Grandfather.
B. Father, Son, Uncle.
C. Father, Daughter, Son.
D. Grandmother, Father, Daughter. The correct answer is “C”
On the answer sheet
31. [A] [B] [C] [D] 32. [A] [B] [C] [D] 33. [A] [B] [C] [D] 34. [A] [B] [C] [D] 35. [A] [B] [C] [D]
In the set of boxes numbered 31, the box with the letter C printed in it is marked.

11. Your dark line MUST be within the box.

12. For each question ONLY ONE box is to be marked in each set of four boxes.

This question paper consists of 12 printed pages.

© The Kenya National Examinations Council, 2011

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

585 REVISING KCPE

Study the map of Liki area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. What is the direction of Loti hilt from the Mission Station?
A. North East.

B. NorthWest.

C. South East.

D. SouthWest.

2. The approximate length of the railway line shown on the map is
A. 10 kilometres
B. 12 kilometres
C. 13 kilometres
D. 18 kilometres.

3. The main type of natural vegetation in Liki area is
A. forest
B. swamp
C. scrub
D. scattered trees.

4. Which one of the following statements is true about river Li mar?
A. It is a seasonal river.
B. It has few meanders.
C. It flows westwards.
D. Tt is used for transport.

5. The following economic activities are carried out in Liki area except
A. fishing
B. mining
C. trading
D. cattle keeping.

6. The distribution of settlements in Liki area can mainly be described as
A. dispersed

B. clustered

C. linear

D. dense.

7. Which one of the following local authorities is in charge of Liki town?
A. City Council.
B. Municipal Council.

C. Urban Council.
D. County Council.

8. Which one of the following was a way of educating the youth in traditional African societies?
A. Using a fixed time table.

B. Attaching the learners to an expert.

C. Teaching boys and girls similar skills.

D. Asking the learners to write down points.

 

9. The migration of people into a country is called
A. immigration
B. emmigration
C. rural-urban migration
D. urban-urban migration.

 

10. Which one of the following is true about the interaction of Kenyan communities during the pre-colomaS period?
A. Having a common standing army.
B. Organizing common initiation ceremonies.
C. Carrying out trading activities.
D. Worshipping the same gods.

11. Who among the following explorers carried out activities along River Zambezi?
A. Dr. David Livingstone.
B. Dr. Ludwig Krapf.
C. Johann Rebmann.
D. Vasco da Gama.
12. Which one of the following was the reason for the coming of the Portuguese to the East African coast?
A. They wanted to build Fort Jesus.
B. They were looking for the source of river Nile.
C. They wanted to trade with people in the region.
D. The wanted to establish maize plantations in the region.

13. The revolution of the earth causes
A. changes in the direction of wind
B. day and night
C. formation of clouds
D. the four seasons.

14. The diagram below shows the structure of a type of mountain. Use it to answer the question that follows.

The type of mountain shown in the diagram was formed as a result of
A. faulting of the rocks
B. folding of the rocks
C. deposition of eroded materials
D. accumulation of lava on the earth’s surface.

15. Below are statements that describe the organization of traditional African Societies,
(i) They lived in caves,
(ii) They believed in a Supreme Being,
(iii) They practised the art of painting,
(iv) They were organized in clans,
(v) They were nomads.
Which one of the following combination of statements describes the social organization of the Khoikhoi.
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii) and (v)
C. (ii), (iv) and (v)
D. (iii), (iv) and (v)

16. Which one of the following Kenyan communities belong to the same language group?
A. Nandi, Boran and Kipsigis.
B. Rendille, Galla and Nandi.
C. Kipsigis, Rendille and Orma.
D. Galla, Orma and Borana.

17. The diagram below shows an instrument used for measuring weather. Use it to answer the question that follows.

 

 

 

 

 

The community whose migration pattern is describe above is
A. Agikuyu
B. Luo
C. Abagusii
D. Iteso.
19. One of the causes of soil erosion is
A. terracing
B. contour ploughing
C. crop rotation
D. monocropping.

20. The reason why children should help parents in carrying out family responsibilities is to
A. enable them earn some money

B. improve their performance in school

C. enable them grow faster

 

 

 

 

 

18.

 

of L.

Which one of the following statements is true
about the instrument shown in the diagram?
It is used to
A. determine the direction of the wind
B. record the speed of the wind
C, determine the strength of the wind
D. record the distance moved by the wind.

Below are statements about the migration of a community into Kenya during the pre-colonial period,
(i) They migrated from the Congo Basin,

(ii) They travelled along the western shores

Victoria.

(ii) They entered Kenya through the Mt.
Elgon area.

(iii) They migrated further eastwards in

D. promote harmony in the family.

21. Which one of the following was the reason why European nations scrambled for colonies in Africa?
A. To acquire raw materials for their industries.
B. To promote the African culture.
C. To create job opportunities for the Africans.
D. To promote peace in the continent.

22. Three of the following are characteristics of the Mediterranean type of climate. Which one is NOT?
A. The annual range of temperature is
high.

B. Rain occurs throughout the year.

C. Summers are hot and dry.

search of

D. Dust storms are common.

agricultural land.

23. Which one of the following is a reason why Lewanika allowed Christian missionaries to establish stations in the Lozi Kingdom?
A. He desired to use them to fight his enemies.
B. He obeyed the advice of Khama of Ngwato.
C. He wanted them to spread Christianity.
D. He wanted them to assist him become wealthy.

24. The meaning of climate is
A. the daily weather condition of a given place
B. the average weather condition of a place over a long period of time
C. the daily temperature records of a given place
D. the amount of moisture in the atmosphere.

25. Below are some uses of soil
(i) Brick making,
(ii) Pottery making,
(iii) Building terraces,
(iv) Decorating walls,
(v) Decorating bodies.
Which one of the following combinations gives the traditional uses of soil?
A. (i), (ii) and (iv).
B. (i), (iii) and (iv).
C. (ii), (iii) and (v).
D. (ii), (iv) and (v).

26. Which one of the following factors led to the Hehe resistance of German occupation in Tanganyika?
A. They were influenced by the prophecy of Mkwawa.
B. They wanted to protect their cultural beliefs.
C. They had been promised support by the British.
D. They wanted to show their military power.

27. Which one of the following methods is used to catch fish in the deep sea?
A. Line fishing.

B. Trawling.
C. Basket fishing.
D. spearing.

28. Which one of the following pre-historic sites in Eastern Africa is correctly matched with the country where it is located?

Pre-historic site Country

A. Hadar Kenya.

B. Ishango Ethiopia.

C. Olduvai Gorge Tanzania.

D. Olorgesaille Uganda.

29. Which one of the following ways indicates how pupils may be abused white at school?
A. Asking them to clean the chalkboard.

B. Retaining them in class during break time.

C. Asking them to complete their home work.

D. Retaining them for extra teaching.

30. Which one of the following is the main effect of HIV and AIDS on population growth?
A. It lowers the life expectancy.
B. It reduces the fertility rates.
C. It leads to increased deaths.
D. It lowers the birth rates.

31. The main reason for establishing settlement schemes in Kenya after independence was to
A. improve standards of living in the rural areas
B. provide farms to the people who had no land
C. reduce pressure on land in densely populated areas
D. increase crop and livestock production.

32. Below are some conditions necessary for the growing, of a crop.

(i) Deep well drained soils which are slightly acidic.
(ii) Gently sloping land.
(iii) Well distributed rainfall throughout the year.

(i v) Temperatures of about 21 °C
The crop that grows under the condition listed above is
A. coffee
B. pyrethrum
C. tea
D. wheat.

33. Below are contributions of an African leader
towards the struggle for independence,
(i) Supported African Liberation Movements,
(ii) Organized non violent struggle,
(iii) Negotiated for independence from colonialist.

The leader referred to is
A. Leopold Senghor
B. Julius Nyerere
C. Camel Nasser
D. Haile Salasie.

34. The following are characteristics of a type of traditional farming in Kenya,
(i) Small portions of land are cultivated at a time,
(ii) Trees are cut and burnt,
(iii) Simple farming tools are used,
(iv) Loss of soil fertility leads to movement of people to new areas.
The characteristics listed above describe traditional type of farming known as
A. bush fallowing
B. rotational farming
C. shifting cultivation
D. crop rotation.
Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 35 to 38

 

591 REVISING KCPE

35. The relief feature marked J is
A. Ahaggar plateau
B. Adamawa Highlands
C. Atlas Mountains
D. Tibesti Mountains.

36. The multi-purpose river project marked K is
A. Aswan High Dam
B. Tana River project
C. Kariba Dam
D. Volta River Scheme.

37. The town marked M is
A. Eldoret
B. Nakuru
C. Nairobi
D. Thika.

38. Which one of the following colonial system of administration was applied in the country marked L?
A. Direct rule.
B. Indirect rule.
C. Association.
D. Assimilation.

39. The main contribution of sugar cane farming to the economy of Sudan is that it has led to the
A. development of social amenities
B. earning of foreign exchange
C. creation of job opportunities
D. development of transport network.

40. Below are statements about a mineral in Kenya,
(i) It is mined on the floor of the Rift Valley,
(ii) It is used for softening water,
(iii) It is the leading mineral export.

The mineral described above is
A. diatomite
B. flourspar
C. limestone
D. soda Ash.
41. Which one of the following groups of factors has favoured the growth of Nakuru town?

preserving facilities.

B. Fishing is carried out during particular seasons.
C. Fish is mainly for export market.
D. Fish is mainly transported by railway.

47. Which one of the following industries is correctly
matched with the main type of pollution it causes?

 

 

42. Three of the following are problems facing poultry farming in Kenya. Which one is not? .

Industry
A. Leather tanning
B. Saw milling
C. Cement manufacture
D. Vehicle assembly

Type of pollution Noise pollution Water pollution Air pollution Land

A. Diseases that kill the birds.

B. Shortage of workers.

C. Expensive poultry feeds.

D. Changes in the prices of poultry products.

43. John, a standard six pupil, notices an elderly person lying along the pathway. The best action for John to take to assist the person is to
A. try to talk to the person
B. call for help
C. let the person rest
D. try to move the person.

44. The main factor favouring large scale dairy farming in the Kenya highlands is
A. existence of cool climate
B. availability of veterinary services
C. availability of labour
D. existence of milk storage facilities.

45. The main reason why there are many road accidents in Kenya is that

A. roads are in poor condition
B. cyclists ride carelessly
C. roads lack road signs
D. drivers ignore traffic rules.

46. Which one of the following statements is true
about inland fishing in both Kenya and Tanzania?

A. Fishermen have inadequate modern fish

48. Below are some factors which are considered in the location of industries,
(i) availability of water,
(ii) nearness to the market,
(iii) availability of raw materials,
(iv) government policy,
(v) availability of labour.
Which one of the following combinations of factors could be considered when locating a basket weaving industry?
A. (i), (ii) and (v).
B. (i), (iii) and (v).
C. (ii), (iii) and (v)
D. (ii), (iv) and (v).

49. Kenya’s philosophy of African Socialism is important in that it

A. promotes traditional systems of government
B. encourages individuals to get wealth
C. encourages people to work as a team
D. promotes the use of different currencies.

50. Below are tourist attractions in Kenya and Switzerland,
(i) Coastal beaches,
(ii) Winter sports,
(iii) Varied glacial scenery,
(iv) Hot sunny climate throughout the year.

592 REVISING KCPE

Which one of the following combinations is made up of tourist attractions in Switzerland?
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i)and(iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iv) and (iii).

51. The Organisation of African Unity (OAU) had its members drawn from
A. independent states of Africa
B. English speaking states of Africa
C. states with similar systems of government
D. states with common currency.

52. Pupils should participate in school management so that they
A. ensure the teachers do their work effectively
B. prepare their class timetables
C. understand the rules that guide them
D. take care of the school money.

53. The following are statements about a type of democracy,
(i) Power is in the hands of citizen.
(ii) Citizens meet to make laws,
(iii) Citizens appoint officials to implement policies.

The type of democracy referred to is
A. direct democracy
B. indirect democracy
C. parliamentary democracy
D. civic democracy.

54. The reason why electric fences are constructed around some national parks is to
A. prevent wild animals from destroying crops
B. make the parks beautiful
C. mark migration routes of wild animals
D. enable people to visit the parks.

55. It is important for citizens to participate in General Elections in order to
A. choose responsible leaders
B. get a share of the national resources
C. assist their relatives to get jobs
D. settle their political differences.

56. One of the benefits of trade to Kenya’s economy is that it

A. encourages people to move to urban centres

B. makes people get to know each other
C. generates revenue for the government
D. reduces the importation of goods.

57. Which one of the following statements describes litigation as a way of resolving conflict in the society?
A. Taking the matter to court.
B. Asking for forgiveness.
C. Discussing with one another.
D. Involving a third party.
58 In Kenya, a councillor may lose a civic seat if he/she is A- unable to contribute in council meeting
B. admitted in hospital
C. declared bankrupt by a court of law
D. unable to use the allocated funds.

59. The work of the police force in Kenya is to
A. make laws
B. arrest low breakers
C. punish law breakers
D. protect the borders.

60. Two communities have disagreed over the ownership of a piece of grazing land.
The best way through which peace could be maintained is by
A. moving one of the communities to a new area
B. teaching the communities how to !ive together
C. negotiating over the matter
D. taking the matter to court.

PART II RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
SECTION A:
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
61. According to the stories of creation in Genesis chapter 1 and 2, human beings were to care for the environment by
A. naming the animals
B. tilling the land
C. building shelters
D. building shrines.

62. The story of Noah and the flood mainly teaches Christians that

A. they should protect their lives
B. families are important

C. they should protect the animals
D. those who sin are punished.

63. The promises that God made to Abraham mainly
teach Christians to be
A. faithful
B. courageous
C. humble
D. tolerant.

64. Who among the following people was the son of Isaac?
A. Joseph.
B. Joshua.
C. Jacob.
D. Jonah.

65. During their last night in Egypt, the Israelites put the blood on the door posts in order to
A. keep their enemies away
B. show their suffering
C. mark their houses
D. show that they were in a hurry.

66. Which one of the following actions was carried out by Moses at Mount Sinai?
A. Building an altar.
B. Removing water from the stone.
C. Feeding people with manna.
D. Performing miraculous deeds.

67. Who among the following people led the Israelites against the Midianites?
A. David.
B. Ahab.
C. Gideon.
D. Saul.

 

68. The Shunamite woman welcomed prophet Elijah into her house by
A. giving him clothes
B. giving him a place to stay
C. pouring oil on his feet
D. washing his clothes.

69. The prophet who foretold about the suffering servant is
A. Amos
B. Jeremiah
C. Micah
D. Isaiah.

70. Which one of the following was said about Jesus by Angel Gabriel? The child will
A. be mighty
B. be called Holy
C. not drink any wine
D. be a light to the Gentiles.

71. Which one of the following reasons explains why the shepherds visited baby Jesus? They
A. wanted to take gold to him
B. were sent by Herod
C. wanted to worship him
D. wanted to please his parents.

72. “Happy are those who work for peace; God will call them his children” (Matthew 5:9)
These words were spoken by Jesus
A. during the sermon on the mount
B. during his temptations
C. when choosing the disciples
D. when attending the wedding at Cana.

73. The main lesson Christians learn from the miracle of the miraculous catch offish is that they should
A. be committed to their work
B. be ready to serve God
C. work with others
D. obey God’s word.

74. A lesson that Christians learn from the raising of Jairus’ daughter is that they should
A. ask for help
B. protect themselves against evil
C. give out their belongings
D. repent their sins.

75. Which one of the following parables teaches Christians to accept others?
The parable of the
A. sower
B. mustard seed
C. lost son
D. rich man and lazarus.
76. Which one of the following statements was said by Jesus during the last super?

A. “This is my body which is given for you.”
B. “Do not worry about your life, what you will eat.”
C. “Father if you are willing, take this cup from me.”
D. “Do not put the Lord your God to the test.”

77. Judas Iscariot betrayed Jesus because he wanted to
A. please the Roman authorities
B. please the Jewish leaders
C. become famous
D. get riches.

78. Jesus made his eleven disciples to believe that He had resurrected by
A. healing them
B. washing their feet
C. breaking the bread
D. showing them the scars.

79. Which one of the following practices was carried out by believers in the early church?
A. Naming of the children.
B. Burning incense.
C. Sharing meals.
D. Pouring libations.

80. Who among the following people baptised the Ethiopian Eunuch?
A. Philip.
B. Peter.
C. Paul.
D. Ananias.

81. Which one of the following is a gift of the Holy Spirit?
A. Mercy.
B. Wisdom.
C. Kindness.
D. Self-control.

82. Which one of the following ways of worship is common to both the traditional African religion and Christianity?
A. Making sacrifices.
B. Reciting prayers.
C. Reading scriptures
D. Baptising believers.

83. The main reason why marriage is important in traditional African communities is
A. to get security

B. to improve one’s status
C. to provide companionship
D. for the continuity of the family line.

84. In traditional African communities children are taught their responsibilities by
A. brothers

B. friends

C. parents

D. sisters.

85. Which one of the following actions by Christians best show their respect for leaders?
A. Being obedient.
B. Paying visits.
C. Correcting the leaders.
D. Offering gifts.

86. Your classmate Tabitha makes a lot of noise during study time. This is affecting the performance of the class.
As a Christian what is the best action to take?
A. Inform her parents about it.
B. Inform the class teacher.
C. Advice her to stop the habit.
D. Tell others not to talk to her.

87. Which one of the following group of activities show
the Christian teaching on leisure activities?

 

88. Your classmate John has been asked by the mother to help in doing housework. He refuses because he feels that this is a dirty job. As a Christian, what advice would you give him?
Tell him
A. the benefit of working
B. to let the mother do it

595 REVISING KCPE

C. to ask the mother to employ a house help
D. to leave home.

89. Timothy a standard seven pupil has been asked to give money to the Captain so as to be allowed to play in the school football team. As a Christian, what action should he take?
A. Pay the money required.
B. Tell him it is wrong.
C. Announce it to the others.
D. Report the matter to the games master.

90. Which one of the following is a main reason why Christians condemn misuse of drugs?
A. It leads to fights.
B. It leads to poverty.
C. It defiles the body.
D. It causes insecurity.

64. A lesson that Muslims learn from Surah At- takathur is that they should
A. take care of orphans
B. worship only one God
C. keep away from worldly things
D. observe punctuality in salah.
65. The following are verses of Surah Al-khlas:
(i) “He begets not nor was He begotten”
(ii) “Say He is Allah the one”
(iii) “And there is none comparable to Him”
(iv) “Allah the self-sufficient master” The correct order of the above verses is
A. (iii)(iv)(ii)(i)
B. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C. (ii) (iv)(i)(iii)
D. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

66. “If you want to do something ” Which one
of the following statements completes the quoted Hadith of the Prophet?
A. Think of its outcome.
B. Do it on your own.
C. Do it immediately.
D. Consult others.

67. Khamis, a standard five pupil was riding on a donkey when it suddenly stopped. According to the Hadith of the Prophet(P.b.u.h) Khamis should

A. feed the donkey
B. force the donkey to move
C. get off the donkey
D. beat up the donkey.

68. The first wife of the prophet (P.b.u.h.) was known as
A. Hafsa bint Umar-al-khattab
B. Khadija bint Khuwailid
C. Aisha bint Abubakar D, Safiya bint Huyay.
69. According to the Hadith of the Prophet (p.b.u.h), the best person is the one who acquires knowledge and
A. memorises it
B. preserves it
C. conceals it
D. teaches it.
70. Who among the following is not a prophet?
A. Zakariya.
B. Lukman.
597 REVISING KCPE

C. Yahya.
D. Yunus.
71. The main reason why hard work is important to
Muslims is because it
A. discourages laziness
B. discourages begging
C. is a way of earning lawfully
D. is a way of creating wealth.

72. Kassim’s mother overworks their maid Halima. The best course of action for Kassim to take is to
A. plead with his mother to be kind to Halima
B. advise his mother to increase Halima’s salary
C. ask Halima to quit her job
D. assist Halima in her duties.

73. According to the teachings of the Prophet (P.b.u.h.), jazakallah should be said when a person
A. becomes sick
B. completes a task
C. wakes up from sleep
D. performs a good deed.

74. Which one of the following Surahs is recited by Muslims when going to sleep?
A. An-Nas.
B. Al-Asr.
C. Al-Alaq.
D. An-Nasr.

 

75. Below are events in the history of Islam;
(i) treaty of Hudaibiya
(ii) farewell Hajj
(iii) battle of Badr
(iv) Hijra to Madina
(v) conquest of Makka
The correct order of the above events is
A. (iii)(iv)(v)(ii)(i)
B. (v) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
C. (iv) (iii) (i) (v) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv).

76. Fatma, a standard six pupil saw her classmate Zainab stealing some money. The right course of action for Fatma to take is to
A. advise Zainab to stop stealing
B. pretend that she did not see Zainab
C. tell other pupils about Zainab’s action
D. ask Zainab to share the money with her.

77. A lesson that Muslims learn from the treatment of prisoners of war in the battle of Badr is that prisoners should be

A. Sitta-tul-shawwal.
B. Ayyamul-beidh.
C. Yaumul ashura.
D. Yaumul arafa.

84. Which one of the following prophets is correctly matched with the scripture revealed to him?

A. set free
B. locked up

Prophet
A. Musa

Scripture
Injil.

C. denied food
D. treated kindly.

78. Your classmate tells you that she would like to buy a dress for Idd celebrations. As a Muslim, you would advise her to buy a dress that is
A. currently on fashion
B. shiny and attractive
C. very expensive
D. modest and covers nakedness.
79. The major activity performed Idd-Ul- on the day of Hajj is
A. visiting the sick
B. attending parties
C. slaughtering animals
D. visiting relatives.

80. The duty of Angel Isrqfil is
A. blowing the trumpet
B. removing the souls
C. recording deeds
D. bringing rain.

81. Which one of the following months is not
among the ash-hurul-hurum?
A. Muharram.
B. Ramadhan.
C. Dhulhijja.
D. Rajab.

82. When Muslims are in need they should seek for assistance from
A. Imam
B. Allah
C. Prophet
D. Jibril.
83. Which is the Sunnah fast observed on the 9th of Dhul-hijjal?

C. Tbrahim – Suhuf.
D. Issa Zabur.

85. The salah which is performed at dawn is known as
A. fajr
B. dhuhr
C. is hah
D. asr.

86. When Muslims perform halal acts, they are
A. protected by Allah
B. punished by Allah
C. rewarded by Allah
D. forgiven by Allah.
87. Muhammad a standard seven pupil forgot that he was fasting and ate a piece of cake. The right action for him to take is to
A. force himself to vomit
B. break the fast and repent
C. continue eating and fast later
D. stop eating and continue fasting.

88. Three of the following items are liable for Zakat
except
A. household furniture
B. clothes for sale
C. cash savings
D. farm produce.

89. A visit to the prophet’s mosque in Madina during Hajj is important because
A. it is a ritual of Hajj.
B. it is the second holiest mosque in Islam.
C. it is the first mosque in Islam.
D. it is where the Sahaba were buried.

90. Which one of the following factors contributed to the spread of Islam along the Kenyan Coast?
A. Colonisation.

B. Holy war.
C. Intermarriage.

D. Slavery.
ANSWERS TO THE 2003 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

MATHEMATICS GHC QUESTIONS ENGLISH KISWAHILI SCIENCE CRE
1 C C B D A C C C 31 B A B D A
2 A B C B B B B B 32 B D A C C
3 D A B B B D D D 33 D C D A B
4 A B D D B A A A 34 A B A C A
5 B D C C B B B B 35 C A A D C
6 B C C B C A A A 36 B D B A D
7 C A A A D A A A 37 A C B D A
8 A D D D A B B B 38 C A B B A
9 C B C B C C C C 39 B B C B A
10 D D C A C D D D 40 B C C B C
11 A C D B C A A A 41 B C C B C
12 B B C D B A A A 42 A A C C A
13 D A B B A B B B 43 D D D B C
14 A D A D A A A A 44 C B D A A
15 B C B A D C C C 45 D C A D C
16 C C D D D A A A 46 C A D B C
17 B D D C D D D D 47 D D A D B
18 A A C A C B B B 48 C B C A D
19 A D D B C C C C 49 C C D A C

20 D C B D B A A A 50 D A A C B
21 B B B B A B B B 51 C
22 D A C C D C C C 52 A
23 A D D B A A A A 53 D
24 B C A C D B B B 54 A
25 C B C C C D D D 55 B
26 C D A A D C C C 56 D
27 D A B A C A A A 57 D
28 C D D B A D D D 58 A
29 D C B C B D D D 59 C
30 D B A A A B B B 60 A

 

ANSWERS TO THE 2004 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

8 C D A D B D D D 38 C C B A B
9 A C D C A A A A 39 C A A B C
10 C A D B B D D D 40 A D C D C
11 C D A B A B B B 41 D B B C D
12 A B C D D B B B 42 B D D D B
13 A A C A C C C C 43 C A B C A
14 D C C C D B B B 44 D A D B C
15 B B B B C D D D 45 A A A D D
16 D D A A B D D D 46 B B B B C
17 A B B B A C C C 47 D D C A A
18 C A A D D B B B 48 B D A C B
19 D D B C A C A A 49 D C C B C
20 C C D B C D D D 50 A B B B B
21 C A D A B A A A 51 D
22 C D B C A A A A 52 B
23 C C D D D C C C 53 A
24 D B C D D D D D 54 D
25 A D C C B C C C 55 B
26 C B C A C C C C 56 D
27 A A A B A B B B 57 C
28 D C C A B A A A 58 A
29 A A A A D D D D 59 D
30 C D D C C C C C 60 C

ANSWERS TO THE 2005 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

19 B C C C D C C C 49 B C D D C
20 C A A D B B B B 50 D C D A A
21 A C D A A A A A 51 D
22 D D D B D D D D 52 A
23 B B B D B C C C 53 C
24 C D A A A C C C 54 B
25 A C B A C B B B 55 B
26 A A B C A D D D 56 A
27 C B C B D A A A 57 D
28 A A D B B B B B 58 C
29 C D C D D D D D 59 D
30 B C D C B C C C 60 B
C. uwezo wa kuweka mipaka

D. serikali yake.

43. Mipaka ya Kitaifa:

A. hutambulisha watawala

B. huimarisha uzalendo

C. huimarisha ubunifu

D. hutambulisha utamaduni.

44. “Bila hisia za umoja na udugu kwa hakika haingewezekana kuwa na taifa madhubuti.” Methali inayoweza kujumuisha kauli hii ni:
A. Mla nawe hafi nawe ila mzaliwa nawe.

B. Papo kwa papo kamba hukata jiwe.

C Kinga na kinga ndipo moto uwakapo. D Udugu wa nazi hukutania chunguni.

45. Kulingana na kifungu, kuishi katika eneo moja husababisha

A. kutegemeana na kupendana

B. kutiana ari na kutambuana

C. kujenga taifa na kuelewana D kushirikiana na kufahamiana.

46. Kulingana na kifungu, ‘mazoea yana taabu’ inamaanisha:

A. mtu akizoea biriani hatatamani vyakula vingine
B. mtu akizoea chakula cha kienyeji hatatamani mapochopocho
C. mtu hutamani chakula alichozoea kuliko kizuri alichoandaliwa
D. mtu hutamani chakula mahsusi kuliko kizuri alichoandaliwa.

47. Huko Afrika Magharibi vitenge vilivyonakshiwa:

A. hupendelewa na wanawake wote

B. hutofautisha wanawake na wanaume

C. hupendelewa na wanajamii wote

D. hutofautisha jamii moja na nyingine.

1 B D B B C

B B B

31 D B

D C C

2 D B D C

B A A A

32 A A A B A

3 A A C

A D C C C

33 B B

D D D

4 C C

C D C

D D D

34 C C

D A C

5 D B

B A A

D D D

35 B

D A B B

6 B C C C

B B B B

36 D A

D A B

7 C D A D C

A A A

37 C D C B D

8 A A B C

D A A A

38 A A A B A

9 B D D A A B B B

39 B C

B D C

10 A C C C

C D D D

40 C B

B D B

11 D A C C

A C C C

41 A B

A D A

12 C

B D B

B A A A

42 A

D D A D

13 C

A C A D B B B

43 C A C A C

14 A

D A B

A D D D

44 B C

A D D

15 B B

D A B C C C

45 B D C A B

16 D C

D A C

B B B

46 D A C A A

17 B

D D C

A B C

D 47 D C

A B C

18 B C A C

D D D D

48 C B

B B A

19 A A B D B

A A A

49 D A B C D

20 D B C B C

B B B

50 A D A D D

21 B C

B D A

D D D 51 B

Control Africa SOLUTIONS

22 C

A A C

A C C C 52 B

606 STD 8 BOOSTER
23 C C C B D A A A 53 A

ANSWERS TO THE 2006 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ANSWERS TO THE 2007 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

20 C C C C D A A A 50 B C A C C
21 B D D B A A A A 51 B
22 D A D D C B B B 52 D
23 A C D A B A A A 53 B
24 D B B D A D D D 54 A
25 B C C C D C C C 55 D
26 B D D A C B B B 56 C
27 D A A D D D D D 57 A
28 A D A B B A A A 58 B
29 C C D D A C C C 59 D
30 B B D A D B B B 60 C

ANSWERS TO THE 2008 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
QUESTIONS
ENGLISH KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS
SCIENCE SOCIAL STUDIES
CRE
IRE
HRE
QUESTIONS
ENGLISH KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS
SCIENCE SOCIAL STUDIES
1 D C A C C C C C 31 A C B A A
2 C B C D A A B B 32 D B C D C
3 A A D B D B D D 33 B A C B D
4 A A A B B A A A 34 B A C C B
5 D D B D D C B B 35 B D B A D
6 B A B D B D A A 36 A C C B A
7 C C A C A D C D 37 D B B C C

8 B D C D C C D C 38 A C D B D
9 B B B B B A A A 39 A D A D C
10 A B D A D C C C 40 C A B C B
11 D A C D A D A B 41 D A A A A
12 C D B A C B A B 42 D B A B D
13 B C D D A C B A 43 C D B B D
14 B C D B D D D D 44 D C C C A
15 A D C D B B D C 45 C A D D B
16 C A B B D B A B 46 D C A B A
17 A B D A A C C C 47 A B C C D
18 A A D A C B A A 48 A C A D B
19 B C C A B D C D 49 B A A C C
20 D D B C D D C D 50 C C C A A
21 C D B A B B B B 51 D
22 B C D A A A A A 52 C
23 D B A C C C A A 53 B
24 A A C C D B C C 54 A
25 A B A B A A C D 55 D
26 C A D A C D A B 56 B
27 B C D D B B C C 57 A
28 C D D B A C B A 58 D
29 B C B A D A D D 59 C

30 D B A D A D C B 60 B

ANSWERS TO THE 2009 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

QUESTIONS ENGLISH
KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS
SCIENCE CRE
IRE HRE QUESTIONS ENGLISH KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS
SCIENCE SOCIAL STUDIES
1 C C C D D C A A 31 D B C A D
2 C A D A B A B B 32 D D C A B
3 A D B A D A B B 33 A B B D B
4 D B B C C B D D 34 A D A B C
5 B D C B B C C C 35 D C B A A
6 B A B A D A A A 36 B A D A D
7 B A A B B D B B 37 C C C D B
8 D B D B C C C C 38 A A B A A
9 B B D B A A A A 39 D C A A C
10 C D B C B B A A 40 A D C D D
11 C A C C D C C C 41 B D D B A
12 C A C B B D B D 42 B A A D A
13 B C A B A D D D 43 D B D C D
14 C D B D C A A A 44 A A A D C
15 C D D D A A D D 45 A C D A B
16 D B A C B D D D 46 A B A B A
17 A D C B D A A A 47 D A D D B
18 C C D C B B B B 48 C D B B A

19 A A B B A A A A 49 B C B B D
20 A B B C C D B B 50 C B A A D
21 B A A A B B C C 51 B
22 B D A A C C B B 52 A
23 C B A C B D D D 53 C
24 B D D C D A A A 54 A
25 C D B B A B C C 55 D
26 D A A D C C A A 56 B
27 A C C B A A D D 57 A
28 C B C D D D C C 58 C
29 A C D C C D B B 59 A
30 A A B A A B A A 60 B

 

ANSWERS TO THE 2010 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

 

QUESTIONS ENGLISH
KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS SCIENCE CRE IRE
HRE QUESTIONS ENGLISH KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS SCIENCE SOCIAL STUDIES
1. A B D C D B B B 31. D A A C B
2. D C C A C C C C 32. A A A D C
3. C D B C A C C C 33. B A A C C
4. D C D A D B B B 34. A C D B A

5. C A D D B C C C 35. C A B B D
6. A C B B D C C C 36. B D C A B
7. C D D C B C C C 37. B B A D D
8. D B A D C D D D 38. B D B D C
9. B D B A A A A 39 B C C D D
10. A B B B D B B B 40. B B C A D
11. D A A A C C C C 41. D A C A B
12. D C B C B D D D 42. C B C B A
13. B C C D B A A A 43. B B D A C
14. B B D A A B B B 44. D C B D A
15. A A C D D B B B 45. C D A C B
16. A D C C C C C C 46. D C A D B
17. C B A B B A A A 47. C C C C D
18. D C B A A D D D 48. B B C A A
19. A A C D D B B B 49. A A B C
20. A A A B C D D D 50. B A C D B
21. C A A C 51. D
22. A D A C B A A A 52. A
23. D A D A B B B 53. C
24. C C D D D A A A 54. B
25. B D A A C D D D 55. D
26. C B D B A B B B 56. A

27. A D B C C A A A 57. C
28. D B A D B D D D 58. B
29. B D A A A C C C 59. C
30. C A C B D A A A 60. B

ANSWERS TO THE 2011 KCPE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

14. B A A B D A 44. B D A C D
15. C D B C C D 45. D A A B A
16. C B D B D A 46. A B C A C
17. B C C A B D 47. D A A C C
18. D A B B C D 48. D D A C C
19. A B A C D C 49. C C D A D
20. B D D A D A 50. A A D B A
21. C C B B A B 51. C
22. A B A* A B B 52. A
23. B A B A A D 53. A
24. A D D B* B C 54. A
25. C C B B D A 55. A
26. D A C D B C 56. C
27. D B B A B D 57. A
28. C B C C C A 58. C
29. B A C D B B 59. B
30. A B A B C C 60. B
NB: PLEASE, Teachers are requested to scrutinize this marking scheme before use.it is worth.